It is tempting to suppose that the name "Jesus" is the "name" discussed at Ephesians chapter 1 and Philippians chapter 2, but both passages quite plainly indicate that cannot be the case. Both citations plainly note that the "name" is given by God only AFTER Christ's sacrifice and resurrection, while the name "Jesus" was given to God's Son decades BEFORE those events.
(Philippians 2:8-11) [Jesus] humbled himself and became obedient as far as death, yes, death on a torture stake. For this very reason also God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every other name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.
(Ephesians 1:20-22) [God] raised [Jesus] up from the dead and seated him at his right hand in the heavenly places, far above every government and authority and power and lordship and every name named, not only in this system of things, but also in that to come. He also subjected all things under his feet, and made him head
(Matthew 1:21) She will give birth to a son, and you must call his name Jesus
Jehovah's Witnesses well understand that the name "Jesus" is not some magical incantation, but now it represents an example, pattern, body of teachings, a promise, and a future to those who embrace and follow the Christ. Thus, the "name above every name" is more than a mere collection of letters, but represents the new authority and position that Jesus is given. Jehovah God the Father has given Jesus Christ the Son a uniquely elevated authority, above any other authority.
(Acts 4:12) Furthermore, there is no salvation in anyone else, for there is not another name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get saved.
Incidentally, the verses around this question's two citations expose the foolishness of pretending that Jesus is his own Father. Did Jesus resurrect himself? Does Jesus sit on his own right hand?
(Philippians 2:9) God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name...
(Ephesians 1:20-22) [God] raised [Jesus] up from the dead and seated him at his right hand in the heavenly places, far above ...every name named... He also subjected all things under his feet, and made him head
Learn more:
http://watchtower.co.uk/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_06.htm
2007-09-25 06:25:48
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answer #1
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answered by achtung_heiss 7
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It doesn't make sense does it? That's the problem with the trinity doctrine! God cannot lie so when Jesus said this it didn't mean that God actually had forsaken him, it was because the pain was going on for so long and he desired relief Titus 1:2 - "upon the basis of a hope of the everlasting life which God, who cannot lie, promised before times long lasting" Re: other responses...11 So that is why God lets an operation of error go to them, that they may get to believing the lie (New World Translation) It does NOT mean God manufactured the lie, he LET the lie go to them (implying that the lie did not originate with Him).,..there is a difference. Also, God didnt lie when he told Adam & Eve that they would die...they did. I mean, they are not alive today are they? Humans were designed to live forever on earth so when God said they would die he meant that the eternal life they would have enjoyed would cease.
2016-05-21 05:01:29
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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of course the name of Jesus is above the rest of all names except of Jehovah´s name according to 1 Corithians 15:27-28 and John 14:28.
1 Corithians 15:27 "For [God] “subjected all things under his feet.” But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that it is with the exception of the one who subjected all things to him. "
And Jehovah was the one that subjected all the thing to his firstson according to Daniel 7:13
"“I kept on beholding in the visions of the night, and, see there! with the clouds of the heavens someone like a son of man happened to be coming; and to the Ancient of Days he gained access, and they brought him up close even before that One. 14 And to him there were given rulership and dignity and kingdom, that the peoples, national groups and languages should all serve even him. His rulership is an indefinitely lasting rulership that will not pass away, and his kingdom one that will not be brought to ruin."
2007-09-23 05:50:42
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Philippians 2:9 reads: "For this very reason also God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every [other] name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father."
The context of Philippians reveals Jesus to be a humble and willing servant of God, who willingly forsook his privileged place in heaven and came to the earth and died a horrible death on a torture stake. That's why Paul said "for this very reason also God exalted him."
It does not matter which translation a person chooses to read, the truth is still obvious to those who are not bent on deception: God exalted Christ and gave him an honored name above all others. What does the word "gave" mean to you?
It means that God granted Jesus the most honored place in the universe as a reward for his faithfulness. That is the simple truth. Christ Jesus did not exalt his own name. Jehovah did. Anything that distorts that precious truth is anti-Christian and from the Devil.
We will leave the burden on the Trinitarian to explain the obvious absurdity that God, somehow, rewarded himself for obeying himself, by giving himself something that he already possessed.
2007-09-23 02:39:41
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answer #4
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answered by keiichi 6
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I am not a JW but the answer is easy and the 2 points is appreciated You also could have added Acts 4:10-12 for it is the same name Jesus for there is no other name given among men whereby you must be saved!
2007-09-28 16:44:18
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answer #5
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answered by cowboy_christian_fellowship 4
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True , Jesus is the greek name used in the Bible. Jesus in Hebrew is Yeshua, translated into English Joshua, the Same name given to the man who lead the Israelites into the promised land, Joshua encounters Christ Jesus in The book ofJoshua.
And it came to pass, when Joshua was by Jericho, that he lifted his eyes and looked, and behold, a Man stood opposite from him with His sword drawn in His hand. And Joshua went to Him and asked Him, "Are You for us or for our adversaries?"
So He replied," No, but as Commander of the army of the Lord I have now come."
And joshua fell on his face to the earth and worshiped, and said to him," What does my Lord say to His servant?"
Then theCommander of the Lord's army said to Joshua, "Take your sandals off your foot, for the place where you stand is holy." And Joshua did so. Joshua 5:13-15
Yeshua means 'Yahweh Saves'.
2007-09-22 19:43:16
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Philippians 2:9-11 who gave this name or authority to him?and and if he was given a name or authority above all other he, who gave it to him,wouldn't have a GREATER Name and Authority?
2007-09-22 19:38:06
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answer #7
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answered by sifu-peluche 2
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Amen
2007-09-30 12:23:17
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answer #8
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answered by xaviersmommy 3
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Phil 2:9-11 is better understood if we look at prophetic example:
Gen 39:1 As for Joseph, he was brought down to Egypt, and Pot′i·phar, a court official of Phar′aoh, the chief of the bodyguard, an Egyptian, got to buy him from the hand of the Ish′ma·el·ites who had brought him down there. 2 But Jehovah proved to be with Joseph, so that he turned out a successful man and came to be over the house of his master, the Egyptian. 3 And his master got to see that Jehovah was with him and that everything he was doing Jehovah was making turn out successful in his hand.
4 And Joseph kept finding favor in his eyes and waited upon him continually, so that he appointed him over his house, and all that was his he gave into his hand. 5 And it followed that from the time he appointed him over his house and in charge of all that was his Jehovah kept blessing the house of the Egyptian due to Joseph, and Jehovah’s blessing came to be upon all that he had in the house and in the field. 6 Finally he left everything that was his in Joseph’s hand;
Joseph was not equal to nor greater than the one who appointed him.
Gen 41:39 After that Phar′aoh said to Joseph: “Since God has caused you to know all this, there is no one as discreet and wise as you are. 40 You will personally be over my house, and all my people will obey you implicitly. Only as to the throne shall I be greater than you.” 41 And Phar′aoh added to Joseph: “See, I do place you over all the land of Egypt.”
Again Joseph became second in Egypt under Pharaoh.
Jesus is the second most powerful being in the universe.
1 Cor 15:24 Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father,
shows that this appointment remained under his God and Father.
27 For [God] “subjected all things under his feet.” But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that it is with the exception of the one who subjected all things to him.
Phil 2:11 and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father..
By obeying Jehovah by submitting to Jesus, we also Honor and Glorify his God and our God.
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2007-09-24 07:32:27
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answer #9
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answered by TeeM 7
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They would argue that Jesus has superiority over man but is still a created being.
If you want to refute a JW, just take them to any verse that points out that Jesus is God. Like in Revelations how Jesus says he is the alpha and omega, and earlier in the same book God the father declares he is the alpha and omega.
Or take them to Hebrews 2:10 where it says all things were made through Christ. It would be a contradiction to say Jesus was created but all things that were created were created through him.
2007-09-22 19:35:18
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answer #10
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answered by Alex T 2
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