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How in light of the following scriptures can you say Mary was sinless? The following verses say if we claim not to have sinned we make God a liar. Are you calling God a liar by saying Mary did not sin?

Romans 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

1John 1:10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.

2007-09-22 17:12:40 · 20 answers · asked by Bible warrior 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

lilmissykato - by that argument Mary's parents would have had to be sinless and all her ancestors. Why could Jesus have just been created without sin? Saying Mary had no sin is in direct violation of the scripture.

2007-09-22 17:22:08 · update #1

Let me add to my statement above.By saying Mary had to be sinless for Christ to be sinless you are limiting God. You are saying that He did not have enough power or the ability to make Jesus sinless without making Mary sinless. And yet somehow He could make Mary sinless without making everyone of her ancestors sinless?

2007-09-22 17:24:54 · update #2

lovingfeathers - the contradictions are not in the Bible. The contradictions are to be found in the Catholic tradition.

2007-09-22 17:26:05 · update #3

DIVER DOWN - I would not call my mother a dirt bag and I would not recommend you doing it in person if you value your health. That being said yes my mom is a sinner. She is saved but yes she sinned and does sin. Everyone does.

2007-09-22 17:29:31 · update #4

Technoman - actually I am trying to point out where Catholic dogma is diametrically opposed to the teaching of the Bible.

2007-09-22 17:30:56 · update #5

tebone0315 - I find your argument ridiculous and a likely cut and paste. You say Mary had to be sinless so Jesus could be sinless. So I ask again was God not powerful enough to make Jesus sinless without making Mary sinless? If He could make Mary sinless without making her parents sinless why could He not just do that to Jesus. Your logic seems to be lacking.

2007-09-22 17:37:59 · update #6

20 answers

Edge, I felt a sens of weariness when I came across your question. I must say you have spiritual energy to have put this question. I went through the answers out of curiosity. Of course, being a Bible believing Christian I believe that Mary was as sinful as any other human being. She herself acknowledged it when she called God her Saviour (Luke 1:47). If she was sinless she wouldn't need a Saviour to save her from hell. She acknowledged her sinfulness and need of a Saviour when she made that statement. The Roman Catholic blasphemes the finished work of Christ on Calvary when they say Mary is His co-redeemer. If Mary was perfect and sinless why would she be praying for the Holy Spirit along with the other disciples in Acts 1:14?

2007-09-22 21:36:08 · answer #1 · answered by jael 2 · 0 2

Scripture and Catholic Doctrine both support the concept of Mary without sin. Support Scripture includes:
Lk 1:28, 1:30, 1:37 "hail full of grace [highly favored]", " found favor with God, "for with God, nothing shall be impossible"
Gn 3:15 "Complete emnity between woman and satan"
Ex 25: 11-21 "ark made of purest gold"

Even Romans 3:23 does not say what you claim it does. If you read all of Romans 3, Paul states "as it is written" and is referring to Psalm 14 which references Fools who say in their hearts there is no God.

2007-09-22 18:42:09 · answer #2 · answered by march 4 · 2 0

Mary, was sinful, for if she had been "created special" to bear Jesus, then two major problems are created.
1. As a person free from sin, she would not be subject to the wages of sin, which is death. As we do not see Mary walking around the earth today, we can assume she died.
2. If She were created special, and sin free to bear Jesus, then this would make the claim that everlasting life could only be obtained from putting faith in Jesus ransom sacrifice invalid. How so? Well Obviously, God does not have to follow his own rules, making Mary sinless, would mean that God could have just ignored the perfect law he created (eye for eye, tooth for tooth) and that he could absolve anyone at anytime with out the whole Jesus shed blood ransom.

Also, where does it stop? Would not for Mary to have been a special creation-free of sin mean that HER mother would have also had to have been a 'special' creation?

2007-09-22 17:25:23 · answer #3 · answered by Tim 47 7 · 3 2

Mary was a direct desendant of Rahab the prositute. Then Mary bore Jesus (the Holy Spirit Overshadowed her) She then became pregnant with Jesus. All Doctor's know that the Blood of the baby comes from the Father ! Mary was Not Without Sin. She was only highly favored among women. At no Time does blood from the mother Ever pass from Mother to Baby In the womb.Only nutrition.

2007-09-22 17:29:19 · answer #4 · answered by Isabella 6 · 1 2

Mary, while be a chosen vessel of God, was just as human as we are and born with the natural tendency to sin. Jesus was not under the curse of Adam because His Father was God, who through the Holy Ghost overshadowed Mary thereby causing a virgin to conceive. The scriptures do not detain what sins she may have done but I sure she did... though obviously not the kind of sin that would take away her virginity. Jesus had to be spotless because He was intended to be the ultimate sacrifice, without spot or blemish.

You may have some sort of Catholic dogma mixed up with the scriptures.

2007-09-22 17:27:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Mary replaced into sinless, whilst she made her offering that replaced into the custom. She replaced right into a Jew and accompanied the regulations. So like various different maiden in that element she might additionally do an identical. and of direction she replaced into sinless. in case you examine Anne Cathrine Emerick's e book or Venerable Mary of Agreda's e book you will possibly comprehend how particularly organic and freed from sin she replaced into. God chosen Mary before she exsisted. And whilst she replaced into right here she in no way stated NO to God. She in no way stated no to her mothers and fathers the two.

2016-10-19 11:58:11 · answer #6 · answered by finnigan 4 · 0 0

No, only the catholic church tries to mislead people into believing that Mary was sinless.

As for "contradiction in the Bible," it boils down to two things: Either the person is reading from one of the books written on behalf of the catholic church that they call the "Holy Bible" or, the person is reading from God's Word (AV1611) and doesn't understand what they are reading therefore "thinking" it has error in it. And nothing more.

"Bibles" that have the "blessings" or the approval of the vatican (NIV, TNIV, NAS, JB, etc.) have more error in them than the average dog has fleas.

If Mary was sinless, why didn't she realize this herself? Why did she realize that she needed a Savior just like anyone else? "She" call Jesus "her" Savior. Besides, after Jesus was born, Mary had children with Joseph. Which is another issue the vatican tries to mislead people on.

2007-09-22 17:24:07 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

Mary was full of GRACE, making her sinless from the moment she was conceived. Mary is the Immaculate conception

Mary, the special woman who is going to give birth to Jesus, is conceived in Her mother’s womb without the stain of Original Sin.

How do we inherit Original Sin — the sin of Adam and Eve who disobeyed the Lord? We get it through our parents’ DNA! It's in our blood! And Original Sin is nothing more than the disobedient nature of mankind (Romans 5:19). We have been given free will and we can choose to do things we know God does not like or want us to do.
The Scriptures — the consistent original Scriptures — are very clear as to what God’s Strength said to Mary: “HAIL, FULL OF GRACE, THE LORD IS WITH THEE!”

W e ARE NOT full of God’s grace. We are sinners. But if you were full of God’s grace, what does that mean? Does that mean you have sin in you?
With Mary, God granted — out of His own good pleasure — all of His grace to Mary.

Now why would He do this? In fact, who else in the Bible, besides Mary, was ever declared to be full of God’s grace? The answer: no one! Only Mary was

Only Mary was declared “full of grace.”

So we need to look at the Old Covenant to understand why the Lord HAD to do this to Mary!

Do you remember the Ark of the Covenant? What was in the Ark? The 10 Commandments. Are not the 10 Commandments the Word of the Lord? What happened to people who in sinfulness touched the Ark of the Covenant with the Word of God in it? They died!


Now it is impossible to be anything but reasonable in reviewing this fact and applying it to the New Covenant. Is Jesus the Word of God? Is Jesus sinless and holy? Who is going to carry Jesus in Her womb?

If Mary has sin in Her, what will happen when God infuses His Holy Spirit in Her and the Word of God takes residence in Her womb? Wouldn’t She be consumed like those who touched the Ark of the Covenant?

Since Mary is going to carry the Word of God within Her for nine months as the New Ark of the Covenant, She CANNOT have sin within Her or She will be consumed by the Holy Spirit!


In addition, in order for Jesus NOT to inherit Original Sin, God stopped this generational process in Mary so that the Blood Jesus receives from Her is PURE and untainted with sin.

2007-09-22 17:33:05 · answer #8 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 3 2

Don't forget Mary's own words as she said the "Magnificat" Luke 1:46/47 "My soul magnifies the Lord,and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior..."
She wouldn't need a Savior if she was perfect now would she. This wonderful insightful girl knew exactly who and what she was...The handmaiden of the Lord.What a great woman she was.

2007-09-22 17:25:56 · answer #9 · answered by AngelsFan 6 · 3 2

According to Catholic doctrine the answer is yes. The Immaculate Conception actually refers to Mary not Jesus.

Here is a reference to it in Wikipedia so that religious freaks do not report my answer.

2007-09-22 17:22:24 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3 3

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