Because it was written by man translated by man. stories added and changed and taken out by man. It was whatever inspired that man at that time. Mostly it was power and money.
2007-09-08 04:46:27
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answer #1
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answered by punch 7
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There are several good answers here, and if you pick *those* out and combine them, you get a *pretty* complete answer.
The first thing that "inspired" *alternate* versions was the differences between sects. The Geneva bible, for example, very popular in England, was chock-full of Protestant (read: anti-Roman Catholic) textual notes. The Roman Catholic Church (RCC) came out with the Douay bible in 1610 (translated from the Vulgate) in response to "rogue" translations, and the King James Bible (KJV, 1611) translation was funded in an attempt to provide a universally acceptable English bible (not RC, but not anti-RC).
The 2nd reason is that which drove the translators of the KJV: namely, to produce a bible in modern English. The reason this is so important is that modern English is more easily understood and, therefore, more accessible to the people reading it! As one answer pointed out by quoting a dated English poem, the language has changed significantly over the centuries. Likewise, the KJV uses *several* words that have different meanings today than at the time of translation, and many others that are not even in use anymore. There is little doubt that the translators of the KJV would insist on a more modern translation today.
A 3rd reason is to produce a translation that is *more* of something (more accurate, more easily read, more literal, etc. etc.) The secondary purpose of the translators of the KJV was to provide a more accurate translation. As then, so now, ancient languages scholarship improves with time, and new ancient manuscripts are discovered and translated over time. The translators of today are far better equipped to make an accurate translation than those of the 17th century, in tools, in manuscript sources and in education.
That being said, the answer that suggested that translation is not an precise science is absolutely correct. There are considerable variations in translation because there are considerable variations in the way *any* specific passage can be translated. The translators of the KJV considered it *necessary* to include alternate translations for a myriad of verses in the margins - unfortunately, edited out in most later printings.
A 4th reason, and one that should not be ignored when discussing this topic, is money. The English speaking world, in general, is very wealthy. It is unlikely that any reasonable translation will suffer the fate of not making a profit for the publisher. This is not to suggest that translations are made with the intent of making $ (although I have little doubt that a few are), but rather that it is not a difficult decision to proceed with a new translation without needing an overwhelming reason. Thus, rather than having just 1 or 2 or even 3 versions that are updated every 50 years or so, we have literally dozens of versions available.
Fortunately, most are done by true ancient language scholars using sound translation techniques. It is likely impossible to honestly say that any translation is devoid of religious bias, but bias can cause a translator to choose one translation for a verse over another without actually mistranslating that verse. In this respect, I think that we are very fortunate to have so many translations to compare in our efforts to discern the true word of God.
Help choosing a bible can be found here: http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AiJAxHooZQBK7xuEvO4VIULty6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20070904112711AAumKmB&show=7#profile-info-B2NeUMphaa
I hope this helps.
Jim, http://www.life-after-harry-potter.com
2007-09-09 20:21:12
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The need to understand in an ever changing society where there are many languages and changes through the decades of the same languages. for example: English spoken by the British and English spoken by Americans. Similar words, completely different meanings.
Every few years, there is need for a current translation in one language or another. So far the record has largely been good. Meaning current translations matching the oldest known manuscripts. Naturally, one gets errors when one language simply doesn't have a word for what is translated. One example is there are four different Greek words for love, each with a different meaning. English has one. Comparing different translations gives us the clearest picture of the correct viewpoint.
2007-09-08 11:58:06
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answer #3
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answered by grnlow 7
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The ever changing English Language.
For example - here is a poem, spelled correctly for it's time, written in English in the late 1300's or early 1400's.
The Love Unfeigned
O yonge fresshe folkes, he or she,
In which that love up groweth with your age,
Repeyreth hoom from worldly vanitee,
And of your herte up-casteth the visage
To thilke god that after his image
Yow made, and thinketh al nis but a fayre
This world, that passeth sone as floures fayre.
And loveth him, the which that right for love
Upon a cros, our soules for to beye,
First starf, and roos, and sit in hevene a-bove;
For he nil falsen no wight, dar I seye,
That wol his herte al hoolly on him leye.
And sin he best to love is, and most meke,
What nedeth feyned loves for to seke?
The Love Unfeigned
Geoffrey Chaucer
If we didn't ever update the translation - in order to read the Bible, everyone would have to learn Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek, since those are the languages it was originally written in.
Peace.
2007-09-08 11:56:03
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answer #4
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answered by Depoetic 6
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After taking a Biblical Greek class, I can totally understand how different translations can come about. When one Greek word in the New Testament can mean multiple English words, or even multiple English phrases, it become difficult to get the exact meaning across. Thusly, different folks have felt certain words have different meanings, so they translated them differently.
2007-09-08 11:51:06
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answer #5
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answered by hanknowaff 3
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The roman catholic church controlled scriptures for over 1,200
They chose the books that were to be kept and destroyed, and killed all the people that would not listen to the pope and his emperor Constantine [ a pagan, leader of the Catholic church ]
Jesus never told His disciples to hurt any one that would not listen to the true scriptures from God.
The only ones in the bible are the sons of satan, as the pope.. and his pagan emperor.
So in the end when the churches were allowed to split from the pope
[ without being killed or burned ], the only books you had were from the pope.. [ his books ] in Latin, Greek and Hebrew...
Or writings that they could not hide, they openly banned and of course ones found as the dead sea scorlls.
Jesus was written into all religions of the world..
These writings and the true church and people of the most high were destroyed. to make your bible and the catholic church what it is today..
I AM NOT SAYNG THE BIBLE IS NOT THE WORD OF GOD. THEY ARE
I AM SAYING THE JESUS WAS WRITTEN INTO MANY RELIGIONS OF THE WORLD FOR A REASON.
Now take the King James version for example.
every time there is a new version they have to make word changes or they cannot copyright them as a new book. as the NKJ... etc. etc.
The Jehovah witnesses took out the word God and added Jehovah..
The worst book I found was called the way, they literally change the words into their own meanings and philosophy.
Word change examples:
In the K.J.V. version.
[ When Jesus was baptized: ]
Mt 3:16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a [ dove, ] and lighting upon him
Joh 1:32 And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a [ dove, ] and it abode upon him.
[ When Jesus cleanses the temple..]
Joh 2:16 And said unto them that sold [ doves, ]Take these things [ hence; ] make not my Father's house an house of merchandise.
Joh 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
Joh 2:21 But he spake of the temple of his body.
Jesus knew after His death and ascention to sit at the right hand of God, that He was to send us the comforter/Holy Spirit.
The word hence in its pure meaning from Christ was hereafter... not out of here .
Joh 2:16 And said unto them that sold [ doves, ]Take these things [ hence; ] = [ hereafter ] make not my Father's house an house of merchandise
THROUGH JESUS,... WE ARE THE TEMPLE!
.
2007-09-08 12:26:47
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answer #6
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answered by john 3
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because people went against God and rewrote the bible to please themselves. they pick and chose what parts they want in their version or just change it all around in order to please a certain group of people. thats why i chose to convert to islam ,. we follow only 1 version and 1 book the quran it has not been altered in its orogional arabic form that God sent through gabrial to the prophet muhammed. yes has been translated into different languages so us nonarabic speaking folks can read it but the arabic has never been changed, nothing added nothing taken away.
2007-09-08 13:35:51
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answer #7
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answered by ? 3
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You have competing ends- literal accuracy- word for word, sentence for sentence, paragraph for paragraph, and clear and easy to read. These competing ends, at times being mutually exclusive, make it difficult to strike a balance.
2007-09-08 12:15:36
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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They didn't like the other versions so they made up their own translation to fit how they wanted the bible to be interpreted
2007-09-08 11:48:51
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Satan inspired them all. all versions of the bible is a lie with its disgusting 3:16 verse. saying God procreates with the daughters of man.
2007-09-08 11:45:59
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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