I tested positive for clamydia during my pregnancy, but 3 years ago it was negative.
I've only been with my husband and he swears only me! Is it possible he had it from the past! Or was he unfaithful? We've been together for six years.
2007-08-21 21:06:31 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ STDs
About half of all men and three-quarters of all women who have chlamydia have no symptoms and do not know that they are infected. It can be serious but is easily cured with antibiotics if detected in time.
To avoid re-infection, any sexual partners should be treated too. Treating gonorrhea is advocated for patients being treated for chlamydia, and vice versa (50% have both infections together)
Once chlamydia has been successfully treated, it won't come back unless a new infection is picked up.
Please see the web pages for more details on Chlamydia.
2007-08-21 22:14:09 · answer #1 · answered by gangadharan nair 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do u have a bird.Or bird feeders.
The only other way to get it is from birds so if u have no birds your husbands lieing.
2007-08-22 11:44:29 · answer #2 · answered by brooke s 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Please read about it here---
http://www.mayoclinic.com/health/chlamydia/DS00173
www.webmd.com
We sure don't know whether he was unfaithful or not! But people can have it and not know it. When one has it, both must be treated.
Talk to your doctor about this. It's spelled chlamydia.
2007-08-22 04:50:32 · answer #3 · answered by Cat Lover 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋