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Hi, a puzzling thought I had, Jesus was killed we all know, but how by his own people, the ones he supposingly gave life to, does this mean he wasn't a God but probually a messenger?????

2007-07-25 22:05:05 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

iv read bits and bobs from the old testiment, thats about it, im a muslim, but go on christian forums to learn about your religion, not thinking of converting if thats what you are thinking

2007-07-25 23:24:24 · update #1

and what i mean by own people is the people he created, jesus to most christians is god, so how was god killed by it creations?????

2007-07-25 23:34:18 · update #2

23 answers

Did Jesus Christ (pbuh) claimed Divinity?
The major difference between Islam and Christianity is the Christians’ insistence on the supposed divinity of Christ (pbuh). A study of the Christian scriptures reveals that Jesus (pbuh) never claimed divinity. In fact there is not a single unequivocal statement in the entire Bible where Jesus (pbuh) himself says, "I am God" or where he says, "worship me". In fact the Bible contains statements attributed to Jesus (pbuh) in which he preached quite the contrary. The following statements in the Bible are attributed to Jesus Christ (pbuh):
(i) "My Father is greater than I."[The Bible, John 14:28]
(ii) "My Father is greater than all."[The Bible, John 10:29]
(iii) "…I cast out devils by the Spirit of God…." [The Bible, Mathew 12:28]
(iv) "…I with the finger of God cast out devils…." [The Bible, Luke 11:20]
(v) "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not my own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me." [The Bible, John 5:30]

Who was before Abraham?
John 8:58:RS reads: “Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am [Greek, e•go′ ei•mi′].’” (NE, KJ, TEV, JB, NAB all read “I am,” some even using capital letters to convey the idea of a title. Thus they endeavor to connect the expression with Exodus 3:14, where, according to their rendering, God refers to himself by the title “I Am.”) However, in NW the latter part of John 8:58 reads: “Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” (The same idea is conveyed by the wording in AT, Mo, CBW, and SE.)
Which rendering agrees with the context? The question of the Jews (verse 57) to which Jesus was replying had to do with age, not identity. Jesus’ reply logically dealt with his age, the length of his existence. Interestingly, no effort is ever made to apply e•go′ ei•mi′ as a title to the holy spirit.
Says A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research, by A. T. Robertson: “The verb [ei•mi′] . . . Sometimes it does express existence as a predicate like any other verb, as in [e•go′ ei•mi′] (Jo. 8:58).”—Nashville, Tenn.; 1934, p. 394.
See also NW appendix, 1984 Reference edition, pp. 1582, 1583.
Acts 20:28: JB reads: “Be on your guard for yourselves and for all the flock of which the Holy Spirit has made you the overseers, to feed the Church of God which he bought with his own blood.” (KJ, Dy, NAB use similar wording.) However, in NW the latter part of the verse reads: “the blood of his own [Son].” (TEV reads similarly. Although the 1953 printing of RS reads “with his own blood,” the 1971 edition reads “with the blood of his own Son.” Ro and Da simply read “the blood of his own.”)
Which rendering(s) agree with 1 John 1:7, which says: “The blood of Jesus his [God’s] Son cleanses us from all sin”? (See also Revelation 1:4-6.) As stated in John 3:16, did God send his only-begotten Son, or did he himself come as a man, so that we might have life? It was the blood, not of God, but of his Son that was poured out.See also NW appendix, 1984 Reference edition, p. 1580. Romans 9:5:

Do fullness make Christ God? No
Consider the immediate context of Colossians 2:9: In verse 8, readers are warned against being misled by those who advocate philosophy and human traditions. They are also told that in Christ “are hid all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge” and are urged to “live in him” and to be “rooted and built up in him and established in the faith.” (Verses 3, 6, 7) It is in him, and not in the originators or the teachers of human philosophy, that a certain precious “fulness” dwells. Was the apostle Paul there saying that the “fulness” that was in Christ made Christ God himself? Not according to Colossians 3:1, where Christ is said to be “seated at the right hand of God.”—See KJ, Dy, TEV, NAB.
According to Liddell and Scott’s Greek-English Lexicon, the•o′tes (the nominative form, from which the•o′te•tos is derived) means “divinity, divine nature, godly person.” (Oxford, 1968, p. 792) Being truly “divinity,” or of “divine nature,” does not make Jesus as the Son of God coequal and coeternal with the Father, any more than the fact that all humans share “humanity” or “human nature” makes them coequal or all the same age.
Titus 2:13:

Throne belong to Almighty God
RS reads: “Of the Son he says, ‘Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever.’” (KJ, NE, TEV, Dy, JB, NAB have similar renderings.) However, NW reads: “But with reference to the Son: ‘God is your throne forever and ever.’” (AT, Mo, TC, By convey the same idea.)

Which rendering is harmonious with the context? The preceding verses say that God is speaking, not that he is being addressed; and the following verse uses the expression “God, thy God,” showing that the one addressed is not the Most High God but is a worshiper of that God. Hebrews 1:8 quotes from Psalm 45:6, which originally was addressed to a human king of Israel. Obviously, the Bible writer of this psalm did not think that this human king was Almighty God. Rather, Psalm 45:6, in RS, reads “Your divine throne.” (NE says, “Your throne is like God’s throne.” JP [verse 7]: “Thy throne given of God.”) Solomon, who was possibly the king originally addressed in Psalm 45, was said to sit “upon Jehovah’s throne.” (1 Chron. 29:23, NW) In harmony with the fact that God is the “throne,” or Source and Upholder of Christ’s kingship, Daniel 7:13, 14 and Luke 1:32 show that God confers such authority on him.

Hebrews 1:8, 9 quotes from Psalm 45:6, 7, concerning which the Bible scholar B. F. Westcott states: “The LXX. admits of two renderings: [ho the•os′] can be taken as a vocative in both cases (Thy throne, O God, . . . therefore, O God, Thy God . . . ) or it can be taken as the subject (or the predicate) in the first case (God is Thy throne, or Thy throne is God . . . ), and in apposition to [ho the•os′ sou] in the second case (Therefore God, even Thy God . . . ). . . . It is scarcely possible that [’Elo•him′] in the original can be addressed to the king. The presumption therefore is against the belief that [ho the•os′] is a vocative in the LXX. Thus on the whole it seems best to adopt in the first clause the rendering: God is Thy throne (or, Thy throne is God), that is ‘Thy kingdom is founded upon God, the immovable Rock.’”—The Epistle to the Hebrews (London, 1889), pp. 25, 26.

What was The Mission of Jesus Christ (pbuh)?
Jesus (pbuh) never claimed divinity for himself. He clearly announced the nature of his mission. Jesus (pbuh) was sent by God to confirm the previous Judaic law. This is clearly evident in the following statements attributed to Jesus (pbuh) in the Gospel of Mathew:
"Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the Prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
"Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven; but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven."
"For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven." [Mathew 5:17-20]

Who sent Jesus pbuh?
The Bible mentions the prophetic nature of Jesus (pbuh) mission in the following verses:
(i) "… and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father’s which sent me."[ John 14:24]
(ii) "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou has sent." [The Bible, John 17:3]

Did Jesus Refuted even the Remotest Suggestion of his Divinity?
Consider the following incident mentioned in the Bible: "And behold, one came and said unto him, ‘Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?’ And he said unto him, ‘Why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.’ " [The Bible, Mathew 19:16-17]
Jesus (pbuh) did not say that to have the eternal life of paradise, man should believe in him as Almighty God or worship him as God, or believe that Jesus (pbuh) would die for his sins. On the contrary he said that the path to salvation was through keeping the commandments. It is indeed striking to note the difference between the words of Jesus Christ (pbuh) and the Christian dogma of salvation through the sacrifice of Jesus (pbuh).

Was Jesus (pbuh) of Nazareth a Man Approved of God?
The following statement from the Bible supports the Islamic belief that Jesus (pbuh) was a prophet of God. "Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know." [The Bible, Acts 2:22]
The Bible does not support the Christian belief in trinity at all. One of the scribes once asked Jesus (pbuh) as to which was the first commandment of all, to which Jesus (pbuh) merely repeated what Moses (pbuh) had said earlier: "Shama Israelu Adonai Ila Hayno Adonai Ikhad."
This is a Hebrew quotation, which means: "Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord."
[The Bible, Mark 12:29]

2007-07-25 22:14:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 5

Jews had nothing to do with the death of Jesus- it was purely a Roman thing. The so called trial given in the NT story is the completely opposite of the Jewish law
1) It takes place at night- all trials were held during the day
2) It takes place in a private home- all trials inJjeruslaem were held in the court of the Sanhedrin in the Temple courtyard
3) There were very few people present - there have to be a minimum of 21 judges in a capital case- in Jerusalem the full Sanhedrin of 70 judges heard capital cases.
4) If a court cannot find a person guilty, they are forbidden to hand them over to secular authorities - the "court" in the NT does not find Jesus guilty and then hands him over.

So four serious violations of the halacha (Jewish law)- which since they were in a capital case means the death sentence for those committing the violations- yet the NT keeps slandering the Pharisees and their strict adherence to the law!

On top of that- you have a big problem; a Roman governor who is later removed for excessive cruelty! (You gotta wonder- and this from a people that watched people fighting to death, getting eaten alive etc for fun!) And yet a conquered, powerless group of people is somehow meant to have the ability to get him to obey them?

What does make ssense is if this whole ridiculous scenario is inserted in to remove the blame from the Romans when the early Christians were trying to convert them and needed a scapegoat! Who better than the people that had rejected their new God - ot removes the blame from the people they are trying to convert while giving an excuse why the vast majority of them have rejected him!

So, unless you are claiming that Jesus was a Roman (a claim that would have gotten you burnt at the stake as a heretic in the Middle Ages by the Inquisition), he was not killed by his own people- but by an occupying military power.

2007-07-26 05:43:28 · answer #2 · answered by allonyoav 7 · 0 1

yawn ....
OK .. so ... that God had a son, and he was called Jesus, and then the God made the biggest sacrifice ever, and gave his own son to save humanity ... and Jesus volunteered, he was all full of love, and preaching about love... until he ended up on the cross, and called for his father ... now ... God is not really just a God, he's ... soooo big and important that he's eternal, immense, but that's not enough ... he's also TRIPLE ... so, he's the Father, the Son and the Holly Spirit ... Jesus is the Son of this equation ... now .. not all Christians agree on his human aspect ... some say he was half god, half human, some say he was god in human body, some say he was the Spirit in god-created body .... anyway ... he was born a Jew, and he was killed by Romans, but Jews could have saved him, but they decided not to, so I guess they took a part in crime .. but there was no crime, really, because! .. now: the twist! ... Jesus forgave them all! ... because they didn't know what they were doing! ... a-ha!

and one more thing: ALL -MEN- are brothers ... so ... ih his (Jesus) eyes, it didn't really matter what nationality anyone is .. all men are god's children ... so we're all cousins .. and we all have to suffer for the bad bad thing Adam and Eve did back in the old time .. they didn't obey their father's orders ... they would have been happy if they were good children, but they wanted to grow up, they wanted to have it their own way, and that's why you and me don't live in Paradise now ... and Adam's and Eve's way was ... they wanted to learn .. so, what's the moral of this story: obey your parents, don't do anything they don't approve, and the most important!!!! don't think! you're not here to think but to believe and obey!

and if you do something wrong: prey, and try to be good, and if you do, it doesn't really matter if you ever killed anyone, because! tomorrow is the new day, when you confess, and make reservations for your vacation in heaven

2007-07-26 05:28:23 · answer #3 · answered by tricky 5 · 1 1

He was killed by His own people because they felt He was speaking blasphemy about being the Son of God and many other things they couldn't understand. The Jews were looking for a conquering King to free them from Roman occupation, not for a Suffering servant come to free them from their SIN. They had the priesthood, and didn't feel as if they needed a Savior, not realizing that the priesthood would be taking on a different role. They felt threatened and intimidated, and thought only in terms of law, not grace when it pertained to their salvation for the law was all they'd ever known! Christ was indeed a messenger, but was also a sacrifice meant to die for animals that couldn't WILLINGLY go to their deaths on behalf of man's sin, no longer able to cover it all as man's evil intentions grew worse and worse. His sacrifice was intended to show God's ULTIMATE love for us by allowing a pure sacrifice (Jesus) to die for us.

2007-07-26 13:19:33 · answer #4 · answered by bigvol662004 6 · 0 0

Jesus became flesh specifically for the purpose of dying on the cross as the final sacrifice for atonement of our sins.

He didn't become a sinner, He became sin itself. That's why at that point, instead of calling God "Father", he says "My God, my God, why have You forsaken me?" For just that brief time, God the Father had to turn His back on His only begotten Son - because He cannot look on sin.

He wasn't dragged to the cross against His will; He went of His own accord and gave His life freely.

I encourage you to read any of the four Gospels in the New Testament - they paint a much clearer picture than can be expressed on Y!A.

2007-07-26 05:16:29 · answer #5 · answered by mrscjr 3 · 1 1

God took on the form of man - this was the only way he could prove that God existed and raised from the dead to show all unbeliveres what his powers are.

God loved us all so much he was willing to go through all of this pain to save man from their evil deeds.

God always has to show himself to man now and again. It still happens today. People are miffed by earthquakes in certain countries, floods and the like

God is more than a messanger

2007-07-26 08:39:47 · answer #6 · answered by GG 3 · 0 1

Jesus was killed by the Jews of the day because he claimed to be God, which they considered blasphemy (a capitol offense in their religion).

The Jews of the day were expecting a physicall Messiah, one that would lead them against the Roman Empire the way Judas Maccabees had led them against the Greeks 200 years prior. They believed that the 'Kingdom' described in the prophecies was a literal one rather than a spiritual one.

2007-07-26 05:11:57 · answer #7 · answered by SDW 6 · 1 3

My guess was you a new christian? Jesus died for our sins, a perfect sinless man died for our sins. He was a messenger but also God. He give us life by having to died himself. Isn't he a great God.

2007-07-26 05:19:43 · answer #8 · answered by unsastisfied 3 · 1 1

he comes from a tradition of dying and resurrected gods, its supposed to represent summer then winter then spring. Death being winter then brought back to life to revive spring. Thats why the crucifixion is celebrated at Easter.
Mythologically he's on sound footing.

2007-07-26 05:39:39 · answer #9 · answered by numbnuts222 7 · 1 2

some believed on him and could clearly see that he was the messiah that was prophecied about and believed on him but others did not believe because their interpretation of the messiah was to be a king not someone who came in a lowly position, their idea of a savior was like a great leader that would free them from Rome not a savior that would free them from sin. the ones who believed formed the early church and were the first Christ followers, it is still that way today some believe on Jesus some do not. we are sinners and we need a savior wont you accept him today friend.

2007-07-26 05:12:38 · answer #10 · answered by disciple 4 · 2 3

Jesus was killed by the Romans not his own people. Crucifixion was never a Jewish form of Execution, it was mainly used by the Romans

2007-07-26 05:16:13 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

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