Did she? Are there cases of similar miracles in other Religions, either ancient or modern?
2007-07-25 10:20:57 · 6 answers · asked by 自由思想家 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
You do realize that the "Immaculate Conception" refers to the conception of the Virgin Mary, right?
2007-07-25 10:26:37 · answer #1 · answered by The Raven † 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
An implicit reference to the doctrine of Immaculate Conception may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you" (Luke 1:28). The phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.
The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning "to fill or endow with grace." Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.
Peace and blessings!
2007-07-25 20:06:12 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Uh, I think that you are confusing the doctrine of the "immaculate conception" of Mary (which only the Roman Catholics believe) with the "virgin" conception (virgin birth) of Jesus.
Happens all of the time.
2007-07-25 17:28:15 · answer #3 · answered by Randy G 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think it would depend entirely on the person, and that conception was the only recorded immaculate conception ever.
2007-07-25 17:24:11 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it never happened Joesph whored her out the night she got trashed drunk and made some fast cash
2007-07-25 17:30:08 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
nah jesus was made in 3.2 minutes just like the rest of us
2007-07-25 17:41:42 · answer #6 · answered by slopoke6968 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋