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Then why did he ask for help from a greater power, and the last line of the bible says.. "I come from the star of David" There is way too many contraditions in the bible unless you can prove it. Abrahim sold his wife, King David was a sex addict who wrote this Hue Heffner LOL

2007-07-14 22:08:16 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

If you are offened by Questions what about the Questions the lord will ask you in the grave when you tell him Jesus is your lord and Jesus comes over and says I never hurd a word they said... don't say I didn't warn you!

2007-07-14 22:20:50 · update #1

No the true spelling is Ibrahim
you need to do some heavy research in your scripture nothing came in plane english! If you got noting good to say then dont didn't your mother teach you! LOL

2007-07-14 22:22:12 · update #2

Let us start...
In the Bible we can find the following four passages wherein Jesus (peace be upon him) predicts a great event:
John 14:16 "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever"
John 15:26 "But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, [even] the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me"
John 14:26 "But the Comforter, [which is] the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you."
Oh really what about these for starters

2007-07-14 22:24:02 · update #3

John 14:26 is the only verse of the Bible which associates the Parakletos with the Holy Spirit. But if we were to go back to the "ancient manuscripts" themselves, we would find that they are not all in agreement that the "Parakletos" is the Holy Spirit. For instance, in the famous the Codex Syriacus, written around the fifth century C.E., and discovered in 1812 on Mount Sinai by Mrs.Agnes S. Lewis (and Mrs. Bensley), the text of 14:26 reads; "Paraclete, the Spirit"; and not "Paraclete, the Holy Spirit.".
Very Important Point: A "Spirit" in the New Testament is a human Prophet. Therefore, Jesus had predicted the comming of a human Prophet (spirit) after him and not the Holy Spirit. Jesus would not have used the word "he" for the Holy Spirit. He would have used "it" instead in John 14:26 above. Read 1 John 4:1-3 below:
"Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world," (1 John 4:1-3)

2007-07-14 22:24:36 · update #4

and how about these!!!!!!!!! explain these oh wizard! LOL
1) Christian scholars see evidence of tampering, especailly with the word "Spirit":
In the famous "Anchor Bible" we find the following quote: "The word parakletos is peculiar in the NT to the Johnannine literature. In John ii Jesus is a parakletos (not a title), serving as a heavenly intercessor with the Father ... Christian tradition has identified this figure (Paraclete) as the Holy Spirit, but scholars like Spitta, Delafosse, Windisch, Sasse, Bultmann, and Betz have doubted whether this identification is true to the original picture and have suggested that the Paraclete was once an independent salvific figure, later confused with the Holy Spirit." (The Anchor Bible, Doubleday & Company, Inc, Garden City, N.Y. 1970, Volume 29A, p. 1135)
We are about to see some of the evidence that goes to prove this position.

2007-07-14 22:25:20 · update #5

Muhammad (peace be upon him), as seen above, did indeed fulfill this prophesy. Whatsoever he "HEARD" from Gabriel (The Qur'an), the same did he physically "SPEAK" to his followers. In the Qur'an we read:
"(God swears) By the star when it falls!: Your comrade (Muhammad) errs not, nor is he deceived; Nor does he speak of (his own) desire. It is naught save a revelation that is revealed (unto him)." (The noble Qur'an, Al-Najm(53):1-4)
You want the truth, you can't handle the truth!

2007-07-14 22:26:16 · update #6

Muhammad was predicted to come in the Gospel of John:
Just a quick note, the Arabic word "Muhammad" is an expression which means "The honorable one" or "The glorified one" or "The admirable". Prophet Muhammad was the first in the Middle East to be named "Muhammad". Below, you will see how Jesus in today's Gospel of John had called this human Prophet which he predicted his comming "The honorable one".
Jesus in the Greek Bible used the Greek word "Periklytos" which means the admirable or glorified one. He called that predicted human prophet "Periklytos". This word corresponds exactly to the Arabic word "Muhammad" which also means the "admired one" or "glorified one." In other words, "Periklytos" is "Muhammad" in Greek.

2007-07-14 22:27:07 · update #7

One of the signs of the prophet to come from Paran (Mecca) is that he will come with "ten thousands of saints" (Deuteronomy 33:2 KJV). That was the number of faithful who accompanied Prophet Muhammad to Paran (Mecca) ..

2007-07-14 22:27:44 · update #8

12 answers

The Creator cannot be Created. Period!

2007-07-15 12:49:25 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

1. Where have you read that Jesus ask help?
2. The last line of the bible Reveletions 22:21
The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen.
3. Where are the contradictions? You may not be understanding what you have read.
4. In Genesis 20 there is no account that Abraham sold Sarah. Read it.
5. David is not a sex addict. He just fall in love with Bathsheba. Solomon was the one with many wives and concubines. Not David.

You will never knew and will never learn.

2007-07-14 22:31:14 · answer #2 · answered by Jex 7 · 0 0

Jesus was not God. He was the Son of God. (John 10:36) He and his Father are not equals. At John 14:28, he said: "The Father is greater than I am."

The Father’s superiority over the Son, as well as the fact that the Father is a separate person, is highlighted also in the prayers of Jesus, such as the one before his execution: “Father, if you wish, remove this cup [that is, an ignominious death] from me. Nevertheless, let, not my will, but yours take place.” (Luke 22:42) If God and Jesus are “one in essence,” as the Trinity doctrine says, how could Jesus’ will, or wish, seem different from that of his Father?—Hebrews 5:7, 8; 9:24.

Furthermore, if Jehovah and Jesus were the same, how could one of them be aware of things of which the other was not? Jesus, for instance, said regarding the time of the world’s judgment: “Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father.”—Mark 13:32.

2007-07-14 22:15:51 · answer #3 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 0 2

I've been reading the Bible for almost 40 years and I can't find even one contradiction in it! I would suggest you examine it more thoroughly as whilst it had about 44 different writers, it had only one author, The Lord Himself. He directed each person as to what to write. The first five books of the Bible are called the "books of Moses" because he wrote them. Interesting isn't it that he wrote about creation and the flood and various other accounts when he wasn't even there to know all that?

2007-07-14 22:20:02 · answer #4 · answered by mandbturner3699 5 · 0 0

He is the second part of the trinity, the Son, you have to read the bible propely mate. The heavenly father is the greatest power in the trinity.

Thats why he said who is greater The person who brings he message or the one that sent the messenger.

2007-07-14 22:14:29 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

So complicated when it is not necessary.
Jesus is NOT Almighty God,
Jesus is God's Son.
And totally agrees with his father in heaven
But is NOT...equal...to his Father.

(John 5:19-20) Therefore, in answer, Jesus went on to say to them: “Most truly I say to YOU, The Son cannot do a single thing of his own initiative, but only what he beholds the Father doing. For whatever things that One does, these things the Son also does in like manner. 20 For the Father has affection for the Son and shows him all the things he himself does, and he will show him works greater than these, in order that YOU may marvel.

2007-07-14 23:07:09 · answer #6 · answered by pugjw9896 7 · 0 2

Jesus is God(in a sence) and the son of God. cuz the trinity is 3 diferent individuals but still one person

2007-07-15 12:53:30 · answer #7 · answered by Frank 3 · 0 0

It doesn't mean Jesus was lower than God in power, but rather lower in physical form as a man, even of sorrows.

2007-07-14 22:39:42 · answer #8 · answered by w2 6 · 0 0

He set aside His power and played it by the same rules and conditions that you and I find ourselves in.

2007-07-14 22:23:44 · answer #9 · answered by Tommy 6 · 0 0

Dont' get peple confused further.God is one and only one.All power is from God.

2007-07-14 22:20:50 · answer #10 · answered by adam a 3 · 0 0

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