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6 answers

No. For sure I would hate the surgeon who read the anatomy done by Leonardo to be used as a reference rather than the one by Netter.

2007-07-14 04:24:03 · answer #1 · answered by April 6 · 0 0

If one book was written before the second became known that the second book was previously written, then the book that was written first was the first one to be written before any of the others. If the second book was written before the first book was written, then the second book comes before the writing of the third book, because the third book came between the writing of the first book and any others that are known. I hope you can understand the above explanation. If you do, you're in big trouble.

2007-07-14 11:30:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Time and quality of writings are not necessarily related. In a given subject matter and the social perspective may have an impact on the reliability of the information contained in the book, however.

For example, many writers influenced by prudish morals refused to document homosexual behavior seen in animals, even though it occurs commonly. Later writers have been more free to describe same-sex coital behavior, meaning later writings are more accurate.

- {♂♂} - {♂♀} - {♀♀} -

2007-07-14 11:23:40 · answer #3 · answered by NHBaritone 7 · 0 0

no not necessary
it can learn from the book before and make the one after a lot better or on the other hand may just be a cheap copy of the one before so it depends

2007-07-14 11:24:45 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No. Although books written closer to the event they report about are considered more valuable-unless they are counted as spurious.

2007-07-14 11:27:52 · answer #5 · answered by johnnywalker 4 · 0 0

Often the converse in the case of non fiction.

2007-07-14 11:23:19 · answer #6 · answered by fourmorebeers 6 · 0 0

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