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What was accomplished?

2007-07-14 04:05:22 · 7 answers · asked by t_a_m_i_l 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Patricia, Jesus is the Only Begotten Son of God. Not the first born. He Is the firstborn from the dead though. And Mary's firstborn. 1Cor17,18 And He Is before all things & by Him all things consist. And He Is the Head of the body, the Church, who is the Beginning, the Firstborn from the dead; that in all things He might have the preeminence.

In the Old Testament, the Lord calls Israel Gods firstborn brought out of Egyptian bondage, Genesis4:22. And then also, Ephraim my firstborn, Jeremiah31:9.

Also, in readng other 1st born verses, the Church of the firstborn, are those who follow after the resurrected Savior. In Psalms there is a 1st born & is associated to those who followed Jesus after the resurrected.

2007-07-15 04:13:50 · update #1

7 answers

God lovingly provided a legal recovery from death for the world of fallen mankind by means of the ransom sacrifice of his Son Jesus Christ. (John 3:16)

God saw fit to make his firstborn Son the central, or key, figure in the outworking of all His purposes (John 1:14-18; Col 1:18-20; 2:8, 9), the focal point on which the light of all prophecies would concentrate and from which their light would radiate (1Pe 1:10-12; Re 19:10; John 1:3-9), the solution to all the problems that Satan’s rebellion had raised (Heb 2:5-9, 14, 15; 1Jo 3:8), and the foundation upon which God would build all future arrangements for the eternal good of His universal family in heaven and earth. (Eph 1:8-10; 2:20; 1Pe 2:4-8) Because of the vital role he thus plays in God’s purpose, Jesus could say, rightly and without exaggeration: “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.”—John 14:6.

” It can be seen that, while Jesus’ death on a torture stake plays a vital part in human salvation, acceptance of this is by no means all that is involved in ‘putting faith in the name of Jesus.’ (Ac 10:43) Following his resurrection, Jesus informed his disciples, “All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth,” thereby showing that he heads a government of universal domain. (Mt 28:18) The apostle Paul made clear that Jesus’ Father has “left nothing that is not subject to him [Jesus],” with the evident exception of “the one who subjected all things to him,” that is, Jehovah, the Sovereign God. (1Co 15:27; Heb 1:1-14; 2:8) Jesus Christ’s “name,” therefore, is more excellent than that of God’s angels, in that his name embraces or stands for the vast executive authority that Jehovah has placed in him. (Heb 1:3, 4) Only those who willingly recognize that “name” and bow to it, subjecting themselves to the authority it represents, will gain life eternal. (Ac 4:12; Eph 1:19-23; Php 2:9-11) They must, sincerely and without hypocrisy, line up with the standards Jesus exemplified and, in faith, obey the commands he gave.—Mt 7:21-23; Ro 1:5; 1Jo 3:23.

2007-07-14 04:43:33 · answer #1 · answered by Patricia L 4 · 3 0

Jehovah Witnesses maintain, as far as I know, that Jesus died for the sins of mankind. They, however, maintain that the object of Christ's persecution was the shape of a stake, rather than an X (cross) shape, as it is believed in mainstream Christianity. Their beliefs originate with the analysis of a few Greek words. Not sure if they are right or not.

2007-07-14 11:17:42 · answer #2 · answered by enarchay 2 · 0 0

This question seems to ask why Jesus died by impalement rather than by stoning, or beating, or hanging (or some other kind of death).

The apostle Paul explained that it was important for Christ to die in a humiliating manner. While this was partly to allow unfaithful onlookers to dismiss Jesus as a "criminal", there was actually a much more significant reason.

(Galatians 3:13) Christ by purchase released us from the curse of the Law by becoming a curse instead of us, because it is written: “Accursed is every man hanged upon a stake.”


By taking this "curse" on himself, Christ also removed the "curse" against the Jews for failing to keep the Mosaic Law Covenant. This simultaneously ended the validity of the Mosaic Law, and allowed the Jews to benefit from Christ's sacrifice.

Recall that Abraham was never under the Mosaic Law (that is, the Law recorded by Moses)...
(Romans 4:13-16) For it was not through law that Abraham or his seed had the promise that he should be heir of a world, but it was through the righteousness by faith. 14 For if those who adhere to law are heirs, faith has been made useless and the promise has been abolished. 15 In reality the Law produces wrath, but where there is no law, neither is there any transgression. 16 On this account it was as a result of faith, that it might be according to undeserved kindness, in order for the promise to be sure to all his seed, not only to that which adheres to the Law, but also to that which adheres to the faith of Abraham

(Galatians 3:19-25) Why, then, the Law? It was added to make transgressions manifest, until the seed should arrive to whom the promise had been made... Is the Law, therefore, against the promises of God? May that never happen! ...Scripture delivered up all things together to the custody of sin, that the promise resulting from faith toward Jesus Christ might be given to those exercising faith. ...Consequently the Law has become our tutor leading to Christ, that we might be declared righteous due to faith. But now that the faith has arrived, we are no longer under a tutor.

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/19980315/article_01.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/19980315/article_01.htm

2007-07-14 23:55:50 · answer #3 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 1 1

Because Adam, despite God’s full warning, willfully brought death upon all his offspring, he was a willful murderer, and Eve shared with him in this willful transgression. So Jehovah, acting in harmony with his later law concerning the Israelite “cities of refuge,” would refuse to accept any ransom in Adam’s behalf and in Eve’s behalf, not letting them come under the ministration of his High Priest Jesus Christ. But as regards the human family that descended from them, God could justly accept the ransom sacrifice of his High Priest Jesus Christ in their behalf, because their sinfulness that merited death was only accidental, it not being willed by them but being due only to birth from Adam.

2007-07-14 11:59:38 · answer #4 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 3 0

To ‘set men free’ (Joh 8:32-36) of the repercussions of Adam's sin. (Ro 5:12, 14)

2007-07-15 02:31:04 · answer #5 · answered by keiichi 6 · 1 0

I'd suggest readin' nicodemus's story of the harrowing of hell. Where Jesus supossedly allowed himself to be killed so he could take souls from hell..kinda interestin'. It's got english copies on the Christian classics etheral library. Interesting stuff. Apocraphic scrolls..

2007-07-14 11:16:05 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

muslims murder, shame on you

2007-07-14 11:24:44 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

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