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These are taken out of the Catechism ot the Catholic church
Redeemed by Christ's Merits (492-493)
By Christ's merits, Mary "is redeemed in a more exalted fashion" (Second Vatican Council). The Father blessed Mary "in Christ with every spiritual blessing" and chose her "in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless" (Eph 1:3-4).

The Eastern Church calls Mary "the All-Holy" and says that she is "free from any stain of sin... formed as a new creature." By God's grace, Mary remained free of personal sin throughout her life.

Total Gift of Self (494)
Mary responded with the obedience of faith. "Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord, let it be done to me according to your Word" (Lk 1:28-38). She gave herself entirely to the person and work of her Son. Church writers call Mary "the Mother of the living." "Death came through Eve, but life through Mary (St. Jerome).

2007-07-01 15:27:48 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

14 answers

Mary did not live a sinless life. Jesus is the only one who did. She needed salvation through Him just like everyone else.

2007-07-01 15:33:04 · answer #1 · answered by beano™ 6 · 4 2

It is a common misconception that Catholics worship Mary, although it is true that Catholics pray to her, and place a great deal (perhaps too much) of emphasis on her. She is supposed to act as a go-between for humanity and Jesus... like if Jesus does not want to do something that a human prays for, she is supposed to plead with him to have mercy. But that brings up a problem: if Jesus is understood to be one of the Trinity, and thus God, he must necessarily be omnipotent, omniscient, and omnibenevolent. That means that if he didn't want to do something, he'd have a perfect reason not to, and she -- a special saint but certainly not a deity -- should not and would indeed have no power to make him do anything. She is said to be the cause of salvation in that she is a passive tool, not in that she actually saved people. Being obedient is a passive thing, and basically God just used her to bring about Jesus. So she is the cause of salvation kind of like a bottle is the cure for your thirst... it holds what you needed but didn't have any value by itself. The doctrine is not scriptural in the least. There are three ways that the Catholic Church comes about its doctrines: "Holy Scripture", "Holy Tradition", and "Divine Guidance". So some of the Church's teachings are derived from the Bible, and some (including the role of Mary) are the way they are simply because that's how it's been done for ages. Some other things are done because Rome says that is what God instructed them to do, be it through visions or prayer or miracles. In short, yours is a very good point, and I am strongly inclined to believe that this is one of the Catholic Church's grievous doctrinal errors. Thank you for pointing it out.

2016-05-20 23:31:20 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

*Is Catholic*

It is Catholic Dogma that
1. Mary never sinned.
2. Mary never had original sin.
3. 1 and 2 are a result of the sacrifice of Christ.

Western Catholics believe that because Mary did not have any sin, she did not die, she was assumed into heaven. Eastern Catholics and the Orthodox believe that Mary did not have to die, but like Jesus she chose to "fall asleep" to show solidarity with sinful humanity and the suffering of her Son.

Mary is Co-Redemptrix. This does not mean "second redeemer" but it means that she is fundamentally integral to redemption. All salvation comes through her because she is the Mother of God. Salvation would not have occurred without her, but all salvation is predicated on the saving act of Christ.

God bless!

2007-07-02 12:08:43 · answer #3 · answered by Liet Kynes 5 · 1 1

Mary was privileged to have the stain or orginal sin removed prior to her conception, as a provision by God for the future holy conception of Jesus Christ, in her womb.

God provided sufficient grace to Mary so as to allow her to totally reject any and every other type of sin, as well.

If Mary's humanity had ever been stained by sin, than Jesus' would have been also, and that would have totally disqualified him from being the Messiah.

Furthermore, if you were God ... would you EVER ... even for a moment ... consider abandoning your own mother to Satan ... a being who's evil nature greatly exceeds that of the worst of humanity's phsycopathic killers?

2007-07-01 16:27:25 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

You are correct in your observation, NewStart:

Not only is Mary's holiness the reason for Jesus' purity, she suffered internally as Jesus was crucified, so is called the Coredemptrix. That means Mary was crucified and there is salvation through her.

There is much more on this in a compilation of Marian visions published as THE THUNDER OF JUSTICE, by Flynn. It documents many interesting supernatural events through what I consider "baptized tenants of Spiritualism."

Satan comes with lying wonders in the last day, but God gives us one more chance to understand Bible prophecies that foretold this Abomination of Desolation. And it is identified in a last-day Bible code. Read: www.revelado.org/revealed.htm

Blessings and AGAPE, Balaam

Edit: I ask a question: Was Mary of the lineage of David? Then she had human propensities to sin through that blood line. Remember, David was a sinner, Rahab was a prostitute, Abraham lied to the King of Egypt, and, yes, Adam and Eve were sinners. Thus Mary had sinful genes.
But God is forgiving and does not hold us accountable for the "sins of the fathers." So, although Mary was born of sinful flesh, she obtained salvation just like everyone else, through the Sacrificial Lamb of God.

2007-07-01 15:38:43 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Christ's atonement is for everyone, including Mary, who was human and therefore could not be perfect. If she WAS perfect, that would put her on the same level as Christ. Didn't happen.

Death came through Adam and Eve, and the reversal of that comes through Christ and what He did - NOT through any human woman, including Mary. She was a righteous woman and a tool in God's hands, but was not the cure for the world. Who thinks up this stuff??

2007-07-01 15:40:19 · answer #6 · answered by Rainfog 5 · 4 2

yes he needs to believe in Christ for salvation. She set a good example, as human being everyone sins, so Mary was also a sinner. ONLY CHRIST IS NOT A SINNER EVEN THOUGH HE CAME FROM MARY.

2007-07-01 15:34:17 · answer #7 · answered by dimitri 3 · 0 2

Mother Mary was born free of sin by the doctrine of Immaculate Conception, meaning she was concieved without sin. Most people get this confused with the conception of Jesus. God, the Father Almighty chose Mother Mary to bear in the fruit of her womb, Jesus. Therefore she was already saved.

2007-07-01 15:34:05 · answer #8 · answered by william.shook 1 · 4 4

Yes, of course Mary needed a savior. The difference is that God saved Mary from sin at the moment of her conception.

Think of sin as falling into a hole. Jesus saves us after we fall into the hole. Mary was saved by God preventing her from falling into the hole.

2007-07-01 15:37:01 · answer #9 · answered by Sldgman 7 · 4 2

She most definitely did need Jesus for her salvation. The merits of Jesus' sacrifice was applied to her at her conception so the sinless one could yield sinless fruit. This is certainly not beyond God as he controls all things and most definitely time.

2007-07-01 15:37:48 · answer #10 · answered by Midge 7 · 3 4

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