Can HIV be transmitted to man through the vaginal fluid of a non-HIV infected woman?

Answer 1

Read the World's largest studies on sexual transmission and decide for yourself.....

The 10-year Padian study observed sexually active
couples in which one partner was HIV positive. The result: in 10 years, not one uninfected partner contracted HIV, even though all participants admitted to having sex without condoms. The study states, 'We followed up 175 HIV-discordant couples over time, for a total of approximately 282 couple-years of follow up. The longest duration of follow-up was 12 visits (6 years).

We observed no seroconversion [infection] after entry into the study."

In the three-year Stewart study (1985) not one male partner of HIV-positive women contracted HIV. Prostitution is not even listed as an HIV risk category by the CDC, because of the extremely low incidence of HIV transmission to clients who have no other risk factors (i.e. drug abuse).

These findings bolster the hypothesis of some AIDS scientists that chronic malnutrition and other environmental factors, and not a sexually-transmitted virus, are the causes of weakened immunity in people diagnosed with one of the nearly 30 AIDS-defining diseases (which vary from country to country).





ORAL SEX

Page-Shafer is a researcher at the Center for AIDS Prevention at the University of California, San Francisco. At the 2004 World AIDS Conference, she presented data from a study of 400 men whose only form of sexual behavior was receiving oral sex. Despite little condom use with multiple partners -- including partners known to be infected with HIV -- none of the men came down with HIV infection.

"We had zero infections over 1,493 person-years of exposure to oral receptive sex," Page-Shafer tells WebMD. "This doesn't mean there aren't factors that contribute to easier HIV transmission by oral sex. It does happen. But data confirm it is a pretty rare occurrence."

Sex And HIV: Behaviour-Change Trial Shows No Link
The East African (Nairobi)

March 17, 2003

Posted to the web March 19, 2003

By Paul Redfern, Special Correspondent Nairobi

A UK funded trial aimed at reducing the spread of Aids in Uganda by modifying sexual behaviour appears to have had little discernible effect.


The trial, carried out on around 15,000 people in the Masaka region, involved distributing condoms, treating around 12,000 victims of sexually transmitted diseases and counselling.

However, while the trial led to a marked change in sexual behavioural patterns, with the proportion reporting causal sexual partners falling from around 35 per cent to 15 per cent, there was no noticeable fall in the number of new cases of HIV infection, although there was a significant reduction in sexually transmitted diseases such as syphilis and gonorrhoea.

The trial results, which were reported in the British medical journal The Lancet, have already aroused some controversy.

The team leader of the trial, Dr Anatoli Kamalai, acknowledged that there was "no measurable reduction" in HIV incidence with "no hint of even a small effect."

Answer 2

No it can't. A person has to actually have the HIV virus in order to pass it on to someone else, it is not able to materialise out of thin air.

Answer 3

No, Albetro R, it can't. A woman has to already have HIV to pass it on to a man.

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The answer from rationaloutlook (now, sadly, deleted) quotes a "three-year Stewart study (1985)" supposedly showing that HIV positive women do not pass HIV on to their male partners.

There is no such study.

rationaloutlook is uncritically quoting from a piece by Liam Scheff on Christine Maggiore's website "Alive and Well", in which he has either totally misunderstood, or is deliberately misrepresenting an actual study of HIV infection passed from an HIV positve semen donor to women undergoing artificial insemination. Here are his words:

http://www.aliveandwell.org/html/africa/related_is_hiv.html

Check out the last three paragraphs. Look familiar?

Here's the abstract of the actual study he is misrepresenting:

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/sites/entrez?db=PubMed&cmd=Retrieve&list_uids=2863597

Note that "HTLV-III" was the common name for HIV in 1985. Note also that it was a study of male to female transmission, not female to male. Note that four out of eight female recipients of the "HTLV-III" (HIV) positive man's semen became positive too.

Note that the authors comment that what this study demonstrates is that "...the findings confirm the role of semen in heterosexual transmission of the virus..."

Scheff's bizarre interpretation of Stewart's study is repeated uncritically on "Alive and Well", and now, it appears, on Yahoo Answers.

Answer 4

No, she would have to have HIV to transmit to the man.

Answer 5

Hi Alberto,

No, you can not pass something that you do not have; likewise you can not get something from someone who does not have it. HIV is a virus; it just does not pop out of no where. Someone has to have it first.

Cheers.

Answer 6

Of course not. HIV is a virus not magic. You can only get it from someone who has it.

Answer 7

no. this is a sexual transmitted only . one has to be infected to get this my opion? links you can read this on . www.webmd. com www.cdc. com

Answer 8

everything is possible dude dont risk use condoms live healthy life