why some verses in the Psalms of bible are removed, such as when David Kill God?

Question

Is there any interpretation of that verse, and who can give justification for removing some verses in a holy scripture?

Answer 1

Because the Nicaean and Laodecean councils said so, and you know how it is with these powerful emperors...
I don't know of the specific verse you quoted, but it is an historical fact that in 325 A.D. Emporer Constantine (the first Christian roman emporer) convened a council of quarreling bishops of several churches intended to discuss matters of difference of opinion of faith versus heresy.
One of the subjects debated was the question of wheter or not Jesus was "of the same substance" as God, or only "a similar substance." I.e. was Jesus the Son of God. The son of God tradition won out, the ultimate expression of this is the Catholic profession of faith in the Trinity.
Several books of writing were discussed as to whether they should be considered part of the Christian canon, such as The Book of Judith, and The book of Jerome. (Thus you see different books in different bibles- Protestant vs. old Catholic vs. Eastern, Syrian, and Slavic Orthodox. (More evidence of the age old problem of people of different beliefs and sects claiming that theirs is the only true faith...)
Remember, the early Church was not immune to State.There were Councils convened to decide matters of faith, at first by the state (Rome), later by members of various Christian faiths (churches).
For example, the 60th Council of Laodicea
dropped Revelation. but included the Book of Baruch and the Epistle of Jeremy and made other changes, which resulted in the texts now known as the Aopchrypha.
Both the Nicean and Laodicean councils (60th) debated whether or not to reserve "Sabbath" (Saturday) or "The lord's Day' (Sunday) as the day for holy obsdervation. I have included a list of biblical references refering to this particular debate- decide for yourself!
I have included (probably in vain) some references, in case people from either side of this coin want to open their minds a little and read some history, whether you choose to believe it or not.
The origininal question seems like an oxymoron to me, but even if so, it is sure to spark a huge debate, in which each side will have prematurely closed minds and not even read past the first few words other people have written...so I just spent the last 3 hours researching and writing an essay which no one will read, I imagine...and so it goes. Oh well- it was fun anyway.

Answer 2

David did not kill God. And no one ever removed any such verse from the Bible.

Answer 3

more to the point...what justification can there be for ADDING verses to the inspired scriptures? Find oldest surviving examples of scripture - if the verse was there at first then it should remain, I agree.
In recent years Bible scholars have been working to verify the authenticity of scripture and removing phrases/words that have been added by men.

Answer 4

because it's not holy, not scripture, and not true. God created david "a man after His own heart" God is immortal. David didn't kill Him

Answer 5

I have to agree with Julia M, as well as your question "who can give justification for removing some verses in a holy scripture?"

Simply put, both are against scripture:

Rev 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
Rev 22:19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.

Deu 4:2 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.

But, in both new and old, we see that God has been disregarded in this matter.

Gal 1:7 Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ.
Gal 1:8 But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.
Gal 1:9 As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.
Gal 1:10 For do I now persuade men, or God? or do I seek to please men? for if I yet pleased men, I should not be the servant of Christ.
Gal 1:11 But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.

Jer 8:7 Yea, the stork in the heaven knoweth her appointed times; and the turtle and the crane and the swallow observe the time of their coming; but my people know not the judgment of the LORD.
Jer 8:8 How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain.
Jer 8:9 The wise men are ashamed, they are dismayed and taken: lo, they have rejected the word of the LORD; and what wisdom is in them?

Many dont realize what "vain" means, in scripture. The hebrew word translated to the english means "bring to nothing or make of no effect", which vain is a very loose translation, but still somewhat adequate with the meaning of "Empty; worthless; having no substance, value or importance."

Apply this to Jer 8:8, and understand that when this was spoken by God, the MAIN job of the scribes was copying scripture.... (at this time, all writings were hand copied)

It is nothing new, but it is unexcuseable. Consider this verse:

Exo 20:7 Thou shalt not take the name of the LORD thy God in vain; for the LORD will not hold him guiltless that taketh his name in vain.

In the original text reads fairly close:

Exo 20:7 You shall not take the name of Jehovah your God in vain; for Jehovah will not leave unpunished the one who takes His name in vain.

The top is from the "King James", the bottom from the "Literal Translation of the Holy Bible" (literal translations do not translate using "traditional doctrinal words and phrases). No, I am not a Jehovah's witness, nor a seventh day adventist.

It is my understandiing of scripture, that nothing was to be modified by man, period. Adding to or taking away, includes adding OR removing verses, or intentionally CHANGING words or phrases, do you all not agree?

Understand that in the OT alone, between Yahweh (Jehovah), and Yah (the two main useages of the name of god given to man by god, the second "emphatic personal"), they have been removed from the scriptures over a whopping >>>3500<<< times!!! That is not and cannot be stated as accidental, by anyones estimation.

In the King James, except for names given to places, such as Jehovah-Yireh, the only surviving use of the name is Psalms 68:4.

Psa 68:2 As smoke is driven away, so drive them away: as wax melteth before the fire, so let the wicked perish at the presence of God.
Psa 68:3 But let the righteous be glad; let them rejoice before God: yea, let them exceedingly rejoice.
Psa 68:4 Sing unto God, sing praises to his name: extol him that rideth upon the heavens by his name JAH, and rejoice before him.

(Think german pronunciation, as in 1611, the letter "j" had a "y" sound, they still pronounced "Jesus" as "Yesous" thus matching the greek pronunciation. Check this, look in an encyclopedia for "j" and you will find that it, as a letter, is only approx. 500 years old... :) Interesting isnt it?)

Paul

Answer 6

Gee, I'm sorry, I'm not familiar with any Scripture anywhere in which David kills God. Just what, exactly, are you referring to?

Answer 7

David killed God? That's a new one on me!

Answer 8

if you claim it was Removed you need to give more information.

Answer 9

Try and google it. you'll more than likely find something.