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Tamar thy daughter in law hath played the harlot; and also, behold, she is with child by whoredom. And Judah said, Bring her forth, and let her be burnt. -- Genesis 38:24

2007-06-21 13:41:24 · 17 answers · asked by Shawn B 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Cop350zx, I didn't say she was, the fact is that your God's Law allows for it.

2007-06-21 13:55:11 · update #1

Cindy, not true. Your bible says that God is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow. He is still just as evil as he was in the OT.

2007-06-21 13:56:56 · update #2

Utuk, Re-read the question. Certainly you can't be that simple-minded.

2007-06-21 13:59:03 · update #3

roseflowergirl, many people were offered as burnt offerings in the OT.

2007-06-21 14:01:17 · update #4

Southernmale, we know she was spared thats not the point. this is:

"And the daughter of any priest, if she profane herself by playing the whore, she profaneth her father: she shall be burnt with fire." -- Leviticus 21:9

2007-06-21 14:05:01 · update #5

17 answers

Because gods are cruel

2007-06-21 13:45:35 · answer #1 · answered by 8theist 6 · 1 2

The bible is full of real life stories about people. Don't fail to realize that the bible isn't a fairy tale about perfect people. It's about real people. Judah had issues with Tamar and when he found out about the child he sought to have her killed. Tamar on the other hand showed forgiveness to Judah, though he was guilty of the same thing.

Figuring this to be the case Judah had a change of heart. This allowed for Judah to turn from his own loathing and evil.

God bless

2007-06-21 21:05:37 · answer #2 · answered by F'sho 4 · 0 0

(NIV) translates/interprets it as 'burnt to death',while the rest just 'be burnt'.
1. We see what a harsh they had during that era.
2. Not really BURNT TO DEATH,but just to make a burnt sign on the cheek or forehead in order to show people she was a harlot.
3. Should it be really burnt her to death. Well,there won't be any other fixed reason to give but Judah was trying his best to get rid of his daughter-in-law for his stupid conduct. Or else if he got caught,he should be the one be burnt to death.
Judah was very cheating-hearted. Remember the case of Joseph,Judah's youngerst brother,then. (read Gen 37.)

Do you go to church at all?
Do you study the Scriptures? Or just curious?
Anyhow,GOD bless you.

2007-06-21 21:17:47 · answer #3 · answered by JW van JW 3 · 0 0

It's not even true. That's why there are so many versions of the book. People wrote it and changed it to their liking. That is why when you read a page sometimes and then read a couple of pages ahead, the statements mentioned contradict themselves. This just proves that the book might have originally brought down by God, but was later changed by people. Therefore, it is no longer valid.

2007-06-21 20:54:45 · answer #4 · answered by Dalila 1 · 0 0

In the culture of that period, adultery was punishable by death -- that was the law. It still is in some countries today, including Islamic nations: rather than being burned, however, women are buried up to their waists and stoned to death.

On the other hand, Jesus forgave the woman caught in adultery and sent her accusers packing by telling them that they could cast the first stone if they themselves were sinless. This is why Christianity is based on the mercy and compassion of the NEW Testament, not the strict Law of the Old Testament.

Try getting out of the Old Testament and into the New. You might be pleasantly surprised.

2007-06-21 20:48:50 · answer #5 · answered by Wolfeblayde 7 · 0 1

So Judah is the law of God now?
Do you know anything at all about Joseph's brothers? Oh look! The Law of God demands that people sell their brothers into slavery! Oh look! The law of God demands that people break the commandments of God! The serpent told Adam and Eve to do it, so it must be the Law of God!
Way to give an objective reading there, buddy!

Oh, I almost forgot - how did Tamar give birth if she was burnt to death while she was pregnant? Hmmmm - what a mystery! She was burned to death while she was pregnant, but nine months later she gave birth to healthy twins! It's a miracle! Praise the God!

2007-06-21 20:49:07 · answer #6 · answered by NONAME 7 · 1 3

You can't use one verse to make a point. If you read on, you will see she explained and was spared. And you wonder why so many on here says the Bible is wrong. It is just like a play, movie or show, you have to understand the WHOLE thing to get the message. You cna't take individual verses and make a point. Thanks and have a good day.

2007-06-21 20:51:12 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

I believe in the bible for only literary reading (sometimes it's better than a romance novel), but after the verse that you mentioned, it goes on to say that she had twins.

2007-06-21 21:08:44 · answer #8 · answered by sweetgurl13069 6 · 0 0

God did not give that command, Judea did.
But he did not know the entire situation at the time.
She was still his daughter-in-law and was unwed at the time of her pregnancy

2007-06-21 20:50:18 · answer #9 · answered by Here I Am 7 · 1 0

Just a question? Wasn't she a prostitute? But before Jesus was sacrificed to save us of our sin (debt you can say) they sacrificed animals..People? Not that I know of... only for crimes but was not done in the name of God or for God, just for how things ran those days, emperors, kings orders..

2007-06-21 20:50:48 · answer #10 · answered by _WhiteRose 3 · 0 0

that's how they did thing in that time we don't do that we let the state house murders til they die of old age and they get better medical treatment than people who haven't committed a crime, that was also the old testament, we live by the new testament now

2007-06-21 20:50:40 · answer #11 · answered by purpleaura1 6 · 0 1

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