2007-06-21 07:00:59 · 11 answers · asked by St. Tom Cruise 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
no where!
figment of their imagination
2007-06-21 07:04:38 · answer #1 · answered by taristidou 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The original texts were Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic. Jerome then translated all of it into Latin, but Latin was not the original language of the Biblical writers. The word abortion is not found in the Bible. The words that have been translated into homosexuality are really mistranslations. The Grk. words Paul uses in 1 Cor. 6 are malakoi and arsenokoitai, these words can be translated as effeminate, perverted, or male prostitutes. The exact original meaning is unclear. The word homosexuality was not part of Greek vocabulary.
2007-06-21 07:38:13 · answer #2 · answered by keri gee 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Bible was not originally Latin. It was Hebrew (Old Testament), and then Aramaic and Koine Greek in the New Testament. The Bible was translated to Latin (the Vulgate) when that was the dominant language. So...the original Bible was not Latin.
Before you try to prove a point, maybe you should know what you are talking about.
2007-06-21 07:05:25 · answer #3 · answered by Mr. A 4 · 3⤊ 1⤋
The Bible wasn't written in Latin. It was written in Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic.
The original Latin Vulgate is a poor translation and the translators did not have access to the textual fragments we do now.
2007-06-21 07:07:37 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Good point...the word homosexual was not even in our vernacular until 1865.
However, many fundamentalists will relay their opinion of interpretation of scripture to you as fact...in regards to Sodom and Gomorrah...I Corinthians 6:9, etc...However, when looking at the original texts...the terminology is not exact and we do not know if it is referring to homosexuality as we know today....most "homosexuals" of Biblical times were only known as temple prostitutes, etc...People needed to procreate to increase their wealth, farm their lands, protect their families...so obviously, homosexuality would have been frowned upon for financial reasons...
2007-06-21 07:07:58 · answer #5 · answered by G.C. 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
They don't, certain groups just feel the need to add things to scriptures to imply certain meanings, even though the bible specifically says not to add to or take from its words.
2007-06-21 07:09:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
were is the word.. serial killer in the bible?
or terrorist or mass suicide or pedophile or cannibalism?
are any of those things wrong?
but many scriptures point to not practising them as a life style of conveniences
2007-06-21 07:08:06 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Exactly!
2007-06-21 07:04:50 · answer #8 · answered by Queenie in the vitamins 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
They don't, but it does say not to murder or commit adultery, and if you figure out what those words mean, then you figure out what you are not to do.
2007-06-21 07:05:24 · answer #9 · answered by artbyheather04 3 · 1⤊ 3⤋
abomination
2007-06-21 07:14:59 · answer #10 · answered by Midge 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋