My wife and i filed jointly in 2004 and 2005,now we owe 30,000 in taxes. I know we are both liable for it but the debt is mainly hers, she is a real estate agent and had some outrageous deductions,so that is the reason why we are now in debt with the IRS. I confided in her to do the taxes accurately, i was so trusting and stupid to sign too...
In the other hand, we are seperated and in the process of a divorce and not in speaking terms at all. I decided to go to the IRS offices myself and got informed that my wife has been lying to me that she has been making payments, and on top of that i was also informed that i don't qualify for Spousal Relief.
I finally got in contact with my wife today and asked her to make arrangements to pay because its HER debt and she told me that she arranged for that debt to be trasferred to her and she would be solely responsible for that debt.
My ? is....
Is that possible,for a debt to be transfered just to her without me signing anything??
2007-06-13
16:20:03
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6 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Business & Finance
➔ Taxes
➔ United States