No.
It is a reference to where she is from. Her name means the same thing as "Mary of Magdala." Magdala was a town in Judea, by the sea of Galilee.
Jews of the second temple era were quite serious about genealogy - that's evident from all the trouble that the Hasmoneans got into over seizing the temple priesthood. The fact that they didn't use a system analogous to our modern surname/.given name is not relevant to that. It is only cultural bias that posits our system as naturally superior.
2007-06-13 09:17:14
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answer #1
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answered by evolver 6
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Magdelene is actually a reference to where she was from\born. That was a very common practice for hundreds of years. Another common practice was a surname based off of the fathers name.
Examples:
Davidson originally started out as meaning David's son.
Fitzgerald originally meant son of Gerald
2007-06-13 09:20:22
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answer #2
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answered by Matt - 3
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To answer the real question.
Yahshua would have been known as Yahshua son of Joseph to the common townfolks. If there were more than one Yahshua son of Joseph then it would be Yahshua son of Joseph son of Matthat and so on.
This is still done is some cultures even some western ones..
In Nova Scotia for instance on the Cape Briton Penisula there are so many MacDonalds and so many Williams that my sister when she married one was known as Her name, Her husbands name and then three more of his ancestors then the moniker holy because the patriarch was a minister then the last name MacDonald.
2007-06-13 09:26:44
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answer #3
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answered by Tzadiq 6
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No. There's a town on the Sea of Galilee called Magdala. She was Mary, the Magdelene, meaning she was from that town.
2007-06-13 09:17:55
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answer #4
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answered by phillipa_gordon 5
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Her call replaced into Mary. She replaced into from the city of Magde - some thing, she replaced into known because the Magdelene, Mary the Magdelene, which replaced into shortened to Mary Magdelene. interior an similar way, Jesus replaced into accepted as Jesus the Nazarene because He replaced into from Nazareth. were given it yet? Jimmy replaced right into a baker. He replaced into accepted as Jimmy the Baker, and later shortened to Jimmy Baker, and that replaced into how very last names were given their commence a lengthy time period in the past.
2016-11-23 18:21:54
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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magdeline comes from the word migdal [means - citadel, tower] which is a place in Israel.
north of Tiberias, was the home of Mary Magdalene. According to Flavius Josephus, the people of Migdal fought against Herod I and against the Romans, and finally sought refuge in the innumerable caves in the Wadi el-Hammam, a canyon-like valley to the west of Migdal. Once an important town, in which the Crusaders built a church in the 12th century, it later fell into ruin. The present farming village was established in 1910.
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people in those days had last names based on where they lived... or by what sort of occupation they had. [link on Jewish Identity]
http://judaism.about.com/library/3_askrabbi_o/bl_simmons_lastnames.htm
"..Jewish identity passed on through the mother has been universally accepted by Jews for 3,000 years, and was decided by God.
In another sense, the father passes on lineage as well, concerning which tribe the child belongs to.
the religion of the child goes by the mother, while the tribal affiliation goes by the father, we see that both the father and mother must take active roles with the child. The mother is entrusted with the awesome duty of instilling in the child faith in God, observance of mitzvot, and Jewish pride. By way of metaphor, we see that the mother gives the baby food and love that brings out it's internal potential. This is in contrast to the external qualities, represented by tribal affiliation that is the father's duty."
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hebrew surnames:
http://www.last-names.net/origincat.asp?origincat=Hebrew
2007-06-13 09:21:35
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answer #6
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answered by opalist 6
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Mary Magdalene came from the town of Magdala. Jesus' geneaology was accurate because it was a royal line, which was always accurately maintained.
2007-06-13 09:19:29
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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People in the Middle East or even in many parts of Europe in the early years have their first name followed by either the name of the place they were born or raised. Mary Magdalene was taken from Mary of Magdala (Magdala is a place).
In Arab countries most first names are followed by a Father's name and sometimes followed by another name with strong influence in the family or society. Like Prince Faisal Al Fahd Bin Saud which means Prince Faisal son (late king) Fahd and Grandson of (former late late king) Saud.
In Europe, most names that last to "son" such as Robinson, Matthieson, Jefferson may also have originated from the famous names who have been one of the greats in their times.
Jesus was named after his father Joseph. as Yeusah ben Yousof or sometimes as Jesus of Nazareth, Jesus son of Jesse (Jesse was the Father of David of Israel). In the Book of Revelation. Jesus called himself the root and and offspring of David. In Jesus genealogy as written in the Gospel by Luke, his family started from Adam and Adam's name was followed by Son of God.
2007-06-13 09:37:33
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answer #8
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answered by Rallie Florencio C 7
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no, of course not... as a matter of fact the town she came from, Magdala, isn't even a real place. It was invented to fill the story, as was her character. Now, if you really want to know about the actual Mary, do a search for her gospel (she had one too, and is rumored to be the author of the books attributed to John and was the real 'beloved disciple').
2007-06-13 09:19:01
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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no. Two miles north of Tiberias, along the lakeshore, was the city of Magdala, home of Mary Magdalene. In the same manner as Jesus was identified as a Nazarene, as he was from Nazareth.
2007-06-13 09:18:45
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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