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When the word baptism comes from a Greek word meaning immersion?

2007-06-13 08:50:18 · 15 answers · asked by Jason Bourne 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

its their only way to get a shower..

2007-06-13 08:53:02 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

First of all Baptism is done by pouring not sprinkling. It may also be done by immersion. Baptism does NOT mean immersion but instead means to wash in Koine Greek. In fact in all of Greek literature it is only used once to mean immersion and is a very unusual use of the word. In the case that it was used it was used to describe the sinking of a ship.

There is no evidence that Jesus was Baptized by immersion. In fact, the pictorial evidence we have in the catacombs of Rome show Jesus being Baptized by St. John the Baptist by pouring over His head from a pitcher. The earliest written evidence of Baptism is from the Didache which allows pouring as well as immersion and gives other guidelines.

In Christ
Fr. Joseph

2007-06-13 09:03:37 · answer #2 · answered by cristoiglesia 7 · 1 0

We may pour water but we do not sprinkle.

The Catechism of the Catholic Church states:

Baptism is performed in the most expressive way by triple immersion in the baptismal water. However, from ancient times it has also been able to be conferred by pouring the water three times over the candidate's head.

In accordance to the command of Jesus Christ in Matthew 28:19-20:

"Go, therefore, and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you."

Catholics baptize using the words, "[Name], I baptize you in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit."

The Catholic Church accepts any baptism from other Christian Church if it was done in this manner.

It has been argued by people smarter than me that not only was there not enough fresh water to baptize three thousand people in Jerusalem but there would not have been enough time to baptize all of them by full immersion in one day even though they started in the morning.

Could these have been baptized by pouring or even sprinkling water over them?

With love in Christ.

2007-06-13 17:35:01 · answer #3 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 0 0

Actually the word is used in the New Testament for immersion as well as washing (of hands) and pouring out (of the Holy Spirit). Furtermore, Roman Catholics typically pour water during baptism, although they recognize immersion, sprinkling and pouring as valid forms.

As early as 70 AD there is recorded testimony of Jesus' apostles advocating pouring as one of the valid means of baptism.

2007-06-13 08:57:51 · answer #4 · answered by sparty035 3 · 0 1

all baptisms until the 300's were all done according to the "apostle's doctrine" which Jesus taught them. all baptisms were by immersion "in the name of Jesus".

in the 300's the council of nicea met & changed several biblical doctrines. this council later became the catholic church.

they:

1 - changed the mode of baptism
from immersion to sprinkling so if babies died, they felt this way they would be assured they would go to heaven

2- changed the wording
from "in Jesus' Name" or "in the name of the LORD Jesus"
to
"in the name of the father, son & Holy Ghost".
(these are not even a name, but titles. there is no power to forgive sins in a title.)

3- created the trinity
before this time, there was no "trinity" (made up term not in the Bible). everyone knew that God put on flesh in the form of man. Jesus was fully GOD ... and fully man.
the doctrine of the trinity was created b/c they wanted due reverence to be given to each ... father, son & Holy Ghost.
this tells us they didn't believe in the oneness of God, but 3 individual beings.

the catholic church (the pope) thinks he is the christ on earth & that he has the power to change any biblical doctrine he sees fit.
i can see why that would anger God.

2007-06-13 09:55:58 · answer #5 · answered by t d 5 · 2 1

I don't think they sprinkle, I believe they pour. If I'm not mistaken, it is also symbolic of the outpouring of the Holy Spirit. Saying that it can only be performed via a certain mode or above a certain age, starts getting into legalism rather than the heart of the matter which is an ingrafting into Christ.

2007-06-13 12:20:34 · answer #6 · answered by ccrider 7 · 0 0

I've never seen that. Catholics and mainstream Protestants practice baptism by either immersion or pouring.

2007-06-13 08:59:26 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Pouring and Sprinkling versus Immersion
Ezek. 36:25 - Ezekiel prophesies that God "will 'sprinkle' clean water on you and you shall be clean." The word for "sprinkle" is "rhaino" which means what it says, sprinkle (not immersion). (“Kai rhaino eph hymas hydor katharon.”)

2 Kings 5:14 - Namaan went down and dipped himself in the Jordan. The Greek word for "dipped" is "baptizo." Here, baptizo means immersion. But many Protestant churches argue that "baptizo" and related tenses of the Greek word always mean immersion, and therefore the Catholic baptisms of pouring or sprinkling water over the head are invalid. The Scriptures disprove their claim.

Num. 19:18 – here, the verbs for dipping (“baptisantes”) and sprinkled (“bapsei”) refers to affusion (pouring) and sprinkling (aspersion), not immersion.

Matt. 3:11; Mark 1:8; Luke 3:16 -John the Baptist prophesied that Jesus will baptize ("baptisei") with the Holy Spirit and fire. In this case, "baptisei" refers to a "pouring" out over the head. This is confirmed by Matt. 3:16 where the Holy Spirit descends upon Jesus' head like a dove and Acts 2:3-4 where the Holy Spirit descended upon Mary and the apostles' heads in the form of tongues of fire. In each case, in fulfilling John the Baptist's prophecy, the Lord baptized ("baptizo") in the form of pouring out His Spirit upon the head, not immersing the person.

Matt. 20:22-23; Mark 10:38-39; Luke 12:50 - Jesus also talks about His baptism (from "baptizo") of blood, which was shed and sprinkled in His passion. But this baptism does not (and cannot) mean immersion.

Mark 7:3 - the Pharisees do not eat unless they wash ("baptizo" ) their hands. This demonstrates that "baptizo" does not always mean immersion. It can mean pouring water over something (in this case, over their hands).

Mark 7:4 - we see that the Jews washed ("bapto" from baptizo) cups, pitchers and vessels, but this does not mean that they actually immersed these items. Also, some manuscripts say the Jews also washed (bapto) couches, yet they did not immerse the couches, they only sprinkled them.

Luke 11:38 - Jesus had not washed ("ebaptisthe") His hands before dinner. Here, the derivative of "baptizo" just means washing up, not immersing.

Acts 2:41 - at Peter's first sermon, 3,000 were baptized. There is archeological proof that immersion would have been impossible in this area. Instead, these 3,000 people had to be sprinkled in water baptism.

Acts 8:38 - because the verse says they "went down into the water," many Protestants say this is proof that baptism must be done by immersion. But the verb to describe Phillip and the eunuch going down into the water is the same verb ("katabaino") used in Acts 8:26 to describe the angel's instruction to Phillip to stop his chariot and go down to Gaza. The word has nothing to do with immersing oneself in water.

Acts 8:39 - because the verse says "they came up out of the water," many Protestants also use this verse to prove that baptism must be done by immersion. However, the Greek word for "coming up out of the water" is "anebesan" which is plural. The verse is describing that both Phillip and the eunuch ascended out of the water, but does not prove that they were both immersed in the water. In fact, Phillip could not have baptized the eunuch if Phillip was also immersed. Finally, even if this was a baptism by immersion, the verse does not say that baptism by immersion is the only way to baptize.

Acts 9:18; 22:16 - Paul is baptized while standing up in the house of Judas. There is no hot tub or swimming pool for immersion. This demonstrates that Paul was sprinkled.

Acts 10:47-48 - Peter baptized in the house of Cornelius, even though hot tubs and swimming pools were not part of homes. Those in the house had to be sprinkled.

Acts 16:33 - the baptism of the jailer and his household appears to be in the house, so immersion is not possible.

Acts 2:17,18,33 - the pouring of water is like the "pouring" out of the Holy Spirit. Pouring is also called "infusion" (of grace).

1 Cor. 10:2 - Paul says that the Israelites were baptized ("baptizo") in the cloud and in the sea. But they could not have been immersed because Exodus 14:22 and 15:9 say that they went dry shod. Thus, "baptizo" does not mean immersed in these verses.

Eph. 4:5 - there is only one baptism, just as there is only one Lord and one faith. Once a person is validly baptized by water and the Spirit in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit with the intention of the Church (whether by pouring or immersion), there is no longer a need to rebaptize the person.

Titus 3:6 – the “washing of regeneration” (baptism) is “poured out” upon us. This “pouring out” generally refers to the pouring of baptismal waters over the head of the newly baptized.

Heb. 6:2 – on the doctrine of baptisms (the word used is “baptismos”) which generally referred to pouring and not immersion.

Heb. 10:22 – the author writes, “with our hearts sprinkled clean from an evil conscience.” This “sprinkling” of baptism refers to aspersion, not immersion. The text also parallels 1 Peter 3:21, which expressly mentions baptism and its ability to, like Heb. 10:22, purify the conscience (the interior disposition of a person).

Isaiah 44:3 - the Lord "pours" water on the thirsty land and "pours" His Spirit upon our descendants. The Lord is “pouring,” not “immersing.”

2 Thess. 2:15 - hold fast to the tradition of the Church, whether oral or written. Since the time of Christ, baptisms have been done by pouring or sprinkling.

2007-06-14 01:51:04 · answer #8 · answered by Daver 7 · 0 0

I'm not sure where it originated. Baptism in the bible is alway after someone has placed their faith in Jesus. It is an outward sign of an inward change that has already happened. It is an illustration of the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus.

2007-06-13 09:00:01 · answer #9 · answered by nspird 2 · 1 1

Not sure, but I know you can't tell them otherwise to immerse completely. Maybe they think a little is better than nothing.
I do believe when the priest baptized infants, they baptize in the fire also, which is wrong. (fire to me is bad, fire is associated with hell) so they must baptize a little in fire and a little in water

2007-06-13 09:38:02 · answer #10 · answered by kiki 1 · 0 1

Does it really matter that much how doused you get, or is it the symbolism that's important?

Nitpicking is nitpicking is nitpicking.

2007-06-13 08:55:27 · answer #11 · answered by ಠ__ಠ 7 · 0 1

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