Yes. Many uninformed people believe that Jehovah's Witnesses changed the Bible to read "a god" at John 1:1. What they don't know is that the New World Translation was NOT the first Bible to say that. Notice how other translations render this part of the verse:
1808: "and the word was a god." The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome's New Translation: With a Corrected Text.
1864: "and a god was the word." The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.
1928: "and the Word was a divine being." La Bible du Centenaire, L'Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.
1935: "and the Word was divine." The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.
1946: "and of a divine kind was the Word." Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.
1958: "and the Word was a God." The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.
1975: "and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word." Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.
1978: "and godlike kind was the Logos." Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.
To say "the Word was God" at John 1:1 would cause two problems. First, how could the Word be with God and be God at the same time? Does that make sense?
The biggest problem with "the Word was God" is that it would contradict with other portions of the Bible that say the Word (Jesus) was God's Son. Consider:
John 3:17 says: "For God sent forth his Son into the world, not for him to judge the world, but for the world to be saved through him." So, who came to earth? Was it God himself or did he send his Son?
Jesus said at John 17:3: "This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ." Did Jesus say he was the only true God or did he say his Father was?
When confronted by his opposers, did Jesus claim to be God? No. He told them: "I am God's Son.
When announcing Jesus' upcoming birth to Mary, what did the angel Gabriel say Jesus would be called? At Luke 1:32, 35 says: "This one will be great and will be called Son of the Most High; and Jehovah God will give him the throne of David his father. For that reason also what is born will be called holy, God’s Son."
So, if "the Word was God," it would contradict, not only the scriptures I quoted above, but also MANY OTHERS.
One last thing. Trinitarians object to the NWT's rendering of John 1:1. But they still can't use their Bibles to prove a trinity because that verse is not talking about THREE persons. It's only talking about the Word (Jesus) that is, if "the Word is God." You need THREE "persons" to even try and prove a trinity. After all, the prefix in "trinity" (tri) means "THREE."
2007-06-13 04:58:33
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answer #1
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answered by LineDancer 7
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I don't need to be 100% sure that the NWT is correct about that scripture.
Do you want to know why? I will tell you.
Our beliefs and understandings are based on the whole Bible, not just one scripture.
There are many controversial scriptures of which there are arguments that could go one way or the other.
Factoring in those controversial scriptures with those that are not controverisal gives us definite proof that Jesus Christ is the son of the almighty God Jehovah.
Look to Luke 1:32-35. That is non-controversial and one sees that prior to there being a Jesus on earth, Mary was told that her son would be called the son of the Most High which she knew as Jehovah or Yahwah and that she would get pregnant by means of the holy spirit, which is power of the most high, not that her son would be God and part holy spirit.
Also consider that Mary had to take her son, for her cleansing at the temple, if Jesus were God or Jehovah, who would be the one accepting those sacrifices?
So look to the whole Bible and not just interpretive statements like John 1:1.
2007-06-13 05:38:42
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answer #2
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answered by sklemetti 3
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Jehovah's Witnesses did a lot checking and rechecking before they came out with The New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures. The original manuscripts of the Hebrew and Greek Scriptures were used in the writings of the Holy Bible.
Kindly checkout these articles for yourself and get the facts.
http://www.watchtower.org/library/na/article_06.htm
http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/article_08.htm
2007-06-13 07:35:07
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answer #3
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answered by CareerPrince23 3
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In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. (John 1:1)
Jehovah God has always existed. Jesus was created by Jehovah. When it mention in the beginning is talking the beginning of creation, his first creation was Michael (aka Jesus previous name before coming on Earth). "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation" (Colossians 1:15).
“Even from time indefinite to time indefinite you are God,” sang the psalmist. “Time indefinite” can refer to things that have an end but the duration of which has not been specified. (Exodus 31:16, 17; Hebrews 9:15) At Psalm 90:2 and elsewhere in the Hebrew Scriptures, though, “time indefinite” means “eternal.” (Ecclesiastes 1:4) Our minds cannot understand how it is possible that God has always existed. Yet, Jehovah had no beginning and will have no end. (Habakkuk 1:12)
2007-06-13 05:38:58
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes, I know for a fact it's true. I had a man tell me that the "a" in the scripture was added by our translators. But if you have ever looked in The New World Translation yourself you will see that many words have been added to make the Bible clearly understood in our modern English. These words that have been added have brackets around them. The verse in John 1:1 has NO brackets, showing that the word "a" was not added by the translators. Our Bible is directly translated word for word from the oldest known scriptural texts.
2007-06-13 04:31:35
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answer #5
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answered by SisterCF 4
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Why don't you check out some older Greek manuscripts and tell me the same about the KJV???
You are aware that the original thought conveyed at the end of the sentence was that the Word was Divine in nature, meaning that he was a supernatural spritual being, right?
2007-06-13 04:40:50
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answer #6
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answered by DwayneWayne 4
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there is a book you can buy from stoops manufacturing company on the internet and it did research on all the translations out there and it shows that the new world translations is the most accurate out there. it is not trying to change words to fit a pre-conceived idea of a trinity!...no such teaching is found in the bible. even Jesus focuses on his God and Father Jehovah Matthew 4:10 and John 20:17 ..even Jesus was a WITNESS for Jehovah 1 Tim 6:13. and it was God that exalted Jesus to a superior position and it was God who GAVE him the name that is above every other name...Phil 2:9..Jesus is not God....but just as the bible says...God's son.
2007-06-13 04:33:46
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answer #7
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answered by ? 2
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The new world translation is taken from original texts.
The king james has many many proven mistakes.
The other bible texts prove that there were two there in the beginning. It was Jehovah who has no beginning or end...and also Michael (Jesus) ....God, Jehovah, made his son...and through his son doing all the work God made everything else...the heaven, the earth, the plants and animals, and mankind.
In the beginning was the word (Michael-Jesus) and the word was with God (in caps) (Jehovah) and the word was a god (small caps)
In other scriptures it talks of Jesus being a mighty god but still not the Almighty God
Try reading John 1:2-4..it says all things came into existence THROUGH him.
2007-06-13 04:33:21
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answer #8
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answered by debbie2243 7
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No version of the Bible is the exact way it was originally written.
2007-06-13 04:28:21
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answer #9
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answered by nhprodigio 2
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The following have given you as good of an answer as I could if not better.
achtung_heiss
Adam's Rib
amorromantico02
sklemetti
LineDancer
DwayneWayne
2007-06-13 06:44:21
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answer #10
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answered by NMB 5
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