2007-06-11
07:07:47
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15 answers
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asked by
xyoob_lauj
4
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
When did God the Father and Son appear in the same instance? When did the Father appear to man? These things are quite different in the BofM then the Holy Bible. The Bible teaches that no man has seen the Father, however the BofM teaches that Joseph Smith saw both Father and Son in personal vision, hovering overhead. How is that the same as the Gospel of the Bible?
How is prayer and baptism for the dead the same as the Bible which teaches the dead know not anything?
How is the idea that Satan will be cast into outer darkness and not destroyed the same as the Bible which teaches that Satan and the fallen angels will be destroyed and all evil and sin with them?
How does the BofM compare with historical facts when compared to the Holy Bible? I never heard of any Central American before they were invaded by the Europeans having the facial and body hair I have seen in the pictures of the so-called Mezzo Americans of Joseph Smith's descriptions.
2007-06-11
07:37:05 ·
update #1
When I say 'No man has seen the Father...' I was quoting from the Bible, so how do you say it was from me? You must ask the Bible why it says that...when Moses saw the back of God, his face was covered by God's protective hand. Don't continue to take things out of context...it makes Swiss Cheese out of your argument.
2007-06-11
07:52:28 ·
update #2
Viking, are you limiting God's power? That contradicts the Bible in that God is all powerful.
2007-06-11
08:13:33 ·
update #3
So if it was Paul's opinion...why isn't the BofM considered Joseph Smith's opinion? Where is the evidence that backs up the BofM in the Holy Bible? I have read both books and find similar yet different...subtle contradictions to be exact. The writing style is similar, but does not back the Holy Bible on every count.
2007-06-11
08:48:07 ·
update #4
Subtle contradictions...where does the Bible teach that baptism of the dead is something that believers is supposed to do? Take a verse out of the Bible that talks about Paul saying we don't do it...then the LDS come along and say they do it.
Subtle contradiction...One High Priest of the Order of Melchizedek...that is Jesus Christ. Why does the LDS come along and say they have the priesthood as ordained by God. The Bible teaches that there is to be one and only one Priest/Mediator between God and Man. So why have these LDS men tell me they are High Priests after the order of Melchizedek? Are they doing as the Pope? Are they taking the name of God in vain?
How is it the LDS believe that Christ has visited various Temples all over Utah when the Bible teaches that Christ will not return in secret but that every eye will see? That is what I mean by subtle contradictions.
If people took the traditions of man out of Christianity do you think we will see only LDS churches everywhere?
2007-06-11
15:54:13 ·
update #5
So you think Joseph Smith survived looking God the Father in the face? Often times, when the Old Testament texts mentioned the Lord, they were referring to the Word, before He was born into humanity. Adam and Eve were with God until they sinned. Once they sinned, they no longer were able to look directly at God.
2007-06-11
16:00:52 ·
update #6
The Bible did not bring unity to those who were not ready for the truth within its covers. Just as Joseph Smith did not understand the Bible he read...so several years later he produces this book, based on his own word and the word of his co-conspirators that it was revealed by God the Father and the Son...
Why is the angel called Mormon supposed to be an enlightened person who had died and become and angel?
How is it that these spirits are born in heaven and then later on Earth as people? Where in the Bible did that come from? I have tried to find it...the only references I get are from members of the LDS and RLDS churches.
2007-06-11
16:04:48 ·
update #7
I have to admit, I no longer have access to the three Mormon books of 'scripture'. I am basing my questioning on what I remember from my interviews and conversations with various LDS members (Elders and 'Priest') and my reading portions of the BofM and the PearlofGP...
The one thing which turned me off was that one of the 'High Priests' told me that the Holy Bible was an enferior book and that the best book ever was the BofM. The other thing is that LDS believe that God the Father had a father, back into infinity...and that each of the High Priests of the LDS will someday become gods as well...and the multitiered heaven/paradise theory...those things are not from the Holy Bible. Or the 8 arks that were built to travel from Africa to Central America...science has shown connections to East Asia not North East Africa.
2007-06-13
08:20:50 ·
update #8
Oh...I just remembered another idea that an LDS High Priest told me...there are four men still wandering around on our planet who personally met Jesus, about 2000 years ago. That's fantastic!
2007-06-13
08:24:38 ·
update #9
Good responses, but still I don't see an answer that can prove beyond all doubt that Joseph Smith was inspired. The doctrines are only found in the BofM, and not in the Holy Bible. On the words of some people who did not know the Bible well, we are supposed to accept that the gospel of Joseph Smith is in one accord with the Gospels of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John. All the mystique of a supernatural journey to the Americas...in the several days after His resurrection before He ascended. There were so many witnesses who saw Him in Israel at that time. No evidence to support the theory that the Central Americans were descended from the Israelites...not everyone after the Tower of Babel was an Israelite. And the story of a city named Enoch being transported elsewhere...where in the Bible is that mentioned? It's not! How can you guys continue to believe stuff that's in a book that came after God's Word the Bible. Yes there are prophets, but I have no faith that yours is true.
2007-06-15
09:16:44 ·
update #10
One more thing I remember...Communion service (or whatever some other churches call it) is supposed to include eating a piece of unleavened 'bread', and drinking 'new wine' which is grape juice. Someone told me
2007-06-16
20:16:38 ·
update #11
One more thing I remember...Communion service (or whatever some other churches call it) is supposed to include eating a piece of unleavened 'bread', and drinking 'new wine' which is grape juice. Someone told me LDS drink water for communion. Is that true?
2007-06-16
20:17:13 ·
update #12
Why do you want to get around Galatians 1:6-12 for anyway?
2007-06-11 07:11:48
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answer #1
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answered by 1saintofGod 6
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In Galatians it doesn't say that every angelic visit is of Satan, nor that the gospel that is historic or popular is the gospel that he preached. If you are familar with LDS theology, you know that we believe that there was an apostacy on a grand scale and that the complete truth was lost to man.
Stephan saw Jesus standing on the right hand on God, just like Joseph Smith did.
I can't remember the rest of your points (they don't show up on this screen, and I don't feel like going back)
I've studied, researched, and prayed. I know that the gospel of Jesus Christ has been restored through the prophet Joseph Smith.
2007-06-14 13:46:39
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answer #2
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answered by Senator John McClain 6
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Well, it's true that no natural man has seen God, the Pearl of Great price explains this well. A natural man cannot see God with his own eyes. To see God requires spritual eyes. God has revealed himself in the bible. There really is no descrepancy.
Anyway, if you truly desire answers to these questions you can find them with prayerful study. Forgive me if I'm wrong, but it just seems a little according to your responses that your more interested in arguing. Therefore I'll let you find your own answers if your desire is real. Try websites by the church, not biased slanderous anti-lds websites. God bless.
2007-06-17 21:45:26
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answer #3
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answered by Guv_Garfunkel 2
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The gospel we preach and believe in is the same gospel being described in these verses. We're not getting around anything.
6 I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel:
7 Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ.
8 But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.
9 As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.
10 For do I now persuade men, or God? or do I seek to please men? for if I yet pleased men, I should not be the servant of Christ.
11 But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.
12 For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.
2007-06-11 14:19:23
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answer #4
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answered by socmum16 ♪ 5
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What was the core of Paul's teaching in Galatians?
11 But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.
12 For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.
This words of Paul could have been echoed by Joseph Smith. Paul preached that the gospel had to be revealed by Christ and not a man or an angel. It is not that he alone could have this power, but that we all do. As Paul had priesthood authority to reveal doctrine to the church in his time, so do the prophets today.
But now, after that ye have known God, or rather are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak and beggarly elements, whereunto ye desire again to be in bondage?
2007-06-12 15:57:23
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answer #5
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answered by Isolde 7
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While you are asking for explanations, what do Mormons say about Jude verse 3?
"...contend for the faith that was once for all delivered to the saints."
If "the faith", or the gospel, (or the system of faith) WAS Once delivered (past tense), then this leaves no room for latter day revelations.
The Book of Mormon calls itself "another Testament", but the verses you cited say if anyone teaches "another gospel", he is accursed.
Since the Mormons admit their book is "another Testament", then they must admit that this "testament" is not "gospel" (i.e. "good news"... the word "gospel" means "good news").
Many who have given answers to your question, however, have instead claimed that it is not "another". This contradicts what is even printed in the Book of Mormon. If it is not "another" then the book is a liar because it claims itself to be "another Testament". (As printed on the cover of the copy I have.)
For Galatians 1 to not condemn it, it must either not be "another" OR it must not be "good news"! Either way, it is not needed in addition to the Bible.
2 Peter 1:3 says we have been given "all things that pertain unto life and godliness"! If this was (is) true, then there is no need for latter day revelations! All is all!
2007-06-11 14:11:56
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answer #6
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answered by JoeBama 7
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We don't need to get around it. We preach the same gospel as Paul did to the Galatians in the scripture you reference. I know you would like to reference Joseph Smith and quote verses 8 and 9, but you also referenced verse 12 which says: For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ. We believe in direct revelation. We also believe that the gospel of Jesus Christ was restored, by the revelation of Jesus Christ.
2007-06-11 14:19:35
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answer #7
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answered by Dave F 3
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Currently,I am not LDS; but how does teh text contradict their teachings? Have you currently read the 'Book of Mormon'?
The 'sense' I question in reading it thru (1 time), is that it 'might' not be scripture; whereas by another sense, it is scripturally speaking an 'amendment' allowed by Christ. Most of it I think occurs in central America?
2007-06-11 14:19:17
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answer #8
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answered by jefferyspringer57@sbcglobal.net 7
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19 I was answered that I must join none of them, for they were all wrong; and the Personage who addressed me said that all their creeds were an abomination in his sight; that those professors were all corrupt; that: "they draw near to me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me, they teach for doctrines the commandments of men, having a form of godliness, but they deny the power thereof."
(Pearl of Great Price | JS-History 1:19)
Why would we try to go around galations when we believe we are teaching the true gospel? Did other churches teach about prophets and how the church should be as taught in the followig verses?
11 And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers;
12 For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ:
13 Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ:
(New Testament | Ephesians 4:11 - 13)
5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism,
(New Testament | Ephesians 4:5)
2007-06-11 17:07:12
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answer #9
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answered by Wahnote 5
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Nothing to get around. We preach the Gospel of Jesus Christ; it is later churches and men who are preaching another gospel than the one preached by Jesus and the Apostles, that's why the original gospel needed to be restored. If in doubt, consider the age when it was possible to buy forgiveness with money...
2007-06-11 16:22:48
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answer #10
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answered by sunnyannie 5
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