And that this was the ORIGINAL intent of the description? Do the SIMPLE research - it's a COMMONLY used religious metaphor used to describe the enlightenment experience (e.g. it was used to describe Jesus' and Buddha's enlightenment). The metaphor of birth is used b/c it's an awakening of realization of one's true nature. 'Virgin' is added because the realization is that one is not of the body. Simple stuff and NOTHING to do with mary, birth, mothers, etc.
2007-06-05 12:17:49 · 13 answers · asked by yappy 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
??? With respect to the buddha question -- are you serious? It's COMPLETELY obvious (hint: enlightenment). You're joking, right?
2007-06-05 12:22:34 · update #1
Because that is a lie.
2007-06-05 12:20:14 · answer #1 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Do you metaphorically have children . . . uh, No! The Bible is describing the "actual" birth of Jesus. The most obvious reason to me for there being a "Virgin" to carry and deliver the Son of God Almighty is because all Kings want their children to come from a never used before vessel. Those that read the Bible can clearly see what God thinks about whores, fornication (sex before marriage) and adultery, so it would stand to reason that the mother of Jesus would have to be a clean woman . . . a virgin.
God Bless
2007-06-05 12:31:53 · answer #2 · answered by B Baruk Today 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Although I don't believe in the virgin birth, I question still your notion of it being "COMMONLY" used to describe enlightenment metaphorically. It is an interesting way to look at it but hardly the answer nor the truth.
I study religious studies (not theology) and never come across it in that notion of yours.
2007-06-05 12:29:18 · answer #3 · answered by Sick Puppy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hey, that's a really good question! I think it's because people have gotten the idea of Jesus' divinity all tied up with his having to be born of a virgin. Also, for a lot of people there is this continued misunderstanding of the nature of prophecy and the Hebrew Scriptures, and the idea that Jesus is foretold in the OT. But, most Hebrew scholars agree the word Isaiah uses is "young girl" and that has been translated to virgin.
2007-06-05 12:24:02 · answer #4 · answered by keri gee 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Nobody denies that it is a commonly used device. It means favored by God.
Moreover, the original Hebrew word translated into Greek as virgin, could have meant "young girl" as well as "virgin".
You seem to have met some out of the mainstream Christians.
2007-06-05 12:32:42 · answer #5 · answered by Richard F 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Wow, you're an idiot. A huge idiot. Isaiah prophesied about the birth of the messiah hundreds of years before Jesus was born. The virgin birth was a sign that the messiah was born.
Isaiah 7:14, "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel."
Matthew recounts the events of Jesus' birth
Matt. 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. 20 ... The angel of the Lord appeared unto Josepeh in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. 22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,
23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
It was literal and not figurative. Why do so many ignorant people talk about something they don't understand. Where did you pull your stupid metaphor idea out of? Moron. Learn to read, then read a book.
2007-06-05 12:30:13 · answer #6 · answered by blizgamer333 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Sidhara Guatma reached enlightenment after falling alseep under a tree after taking a walk and seeing misery in the world
2007-06-05 12:25:46 · answer #7 · answered by (insert creative name here) 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The term describing Mary as a virgin is a mistranslation anyway. The original term was "maiden" instead of "virgin".
2007-06-05 12:46:51 · answer #8 · answered by Douglas G 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How does one know something in a religious text is simply a metaphor? What is the context of the text in its oral tradition from which it came?
2007-06-05 12:21:20 · answer #9 · answered by James O 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mmmm, no. No, not really. Mary never laid with a man, and God told her that she would have a son.
Sounds like a literal virgin birth to ME.
2007-06-05 12:21:33 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because if Mary would have had sex, she would have sinned, and Jesus couldn't have come out of a sin
2007-06-05 12:28:48 · answer #11 · answered by Christopher B 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋