people will interrupt the bible in anyway that they see fit, but I believe that if it is truly the word of God then yes there has to me a passage about Gays and acceptance!
2007-06-05 07:21:09
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answer #1
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answered by Vintage Glamour 6
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You have to remember that there are various words that translated to the English word "love," but the original text meant something other than romantic love. For example, eros is more of a sexual feeling of love, filleo is more of a brotherly sort of love, and agape is love without conditions. John was referred as the disciple that Jesus loved in his own works, the gospel of John, written by said John. He likely wanted to establish that he had a special relationship with Jesus, and it is very likely that Jesus did feel very fondly towards John. John was the only disciple present at the crucifixion, and there Jesus entrusted the care of His mother Mary to him, saying, "woman, here is your son."
2007-06-05 14:24:04
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answer #2
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answered by lulu muffin 5
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A lot of people misconstrue the events that happened between David and Jonathan only to make more confusion and enlighten themselves. It is possible for two of the same sex to love one another without having sexual feelings for one another. David and Jonathan cared for each other a great deal and went through many trying times together; wouldn't you develop a loving relationship with someone that prevented you from being killed several times?
2007-06-05 15:01:46
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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You are performing eisegesis, rather than exegesis. You are reading into the text something that is clearly not there.
You forget that Hebrews, especially a son of the King of Israel (Jonathan) and the future anointed King of Israel (David) would not sin like that, without a prophet calling them on it. (An example of this occurred when David and Bathsheba did the horizontal polka together.)
I love my brother and my best friend, but I'm not gay with them. And the kiss that David and Jonathan had was a typical Middle Eastern greeting. It is even done today. (Without any gayness.)
UPDATE to your add'l details: The term "loved" in your question about the disciple Jesus loved, is the Greek word "agapao," (Pronounced ag-ap-ah'-o) Strong's Reference # 25 which is likely from agan (much) [or compare HSN5689]; to love (in a social or moral sense). It means an unconditional love of the will.
The other Greek words used in the Bible for "love" are "phileo" (which is brotherly love) and "eros" (which is ******/sexual love.) Neither of these two terms were used when John described himself as the disciple that Jesus loved.
2007-06-05 14:27:11
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Suppose I tell you that I have a girlfriend that I love like a sister?
Maybe I might even tell you that, in many ways, her love is better than the love of my husband.
Do you automatically assume that we are lesbians?
Suppose I tell you that I love my dog, and that he is more loyal to me than my husband?
Do you jump to the conclusion that I am having sex with my dog?
I don't think John ever identified the disciple Jesus loved, either as himself or as anyone else.
Is it your contention that, if Jesus was closer to a particular disciple than He might have been to the rest of them, that they must have been sexually involved?
Do you imagine that, because David and Jonathan had a special friendship, that they were gay lovers?
If the term "love" arouses thoughts of sex in your mind, then perhaps the problem is YOU??
2007-06-05 14:26:17
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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How dare you say that David and Johnathan are GAY???? First of all the bible does not contradict itself. How ignorant are you?? it states that all homosexuals will not inherit the kingdom of heaven. in the bible does it say that David and JOhnathon had sexual relations? Its revalent that David was Straight regarding to the fact that he had sexual relations with his best friends wife. Depite of Davids sinful act, God was happy because David was a man that was in search for GOd's heart. Why would he God even destroyed Sodom and Gomorah for thier sinfulness of homosexuality... Read and research your stuff before you talk horrible ignorant things. Homosexuality an obomination against God... God created man and woman for each other not woman and woman and man and man. and Jesus that lived a sinful life how was he able to be gay if being gay is a sin??? Learn your fact. And Jesus did love John... because he too was after God's own heart... God loves those who are after his heart. learn your facts... Read the bible before you start talking smack
2007-06-05 14:52:31
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answer #6
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answered by leenystar2003 2
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The David and Johnathan thing; possible. I wouldn't have a thing to say against it. God loved David, homosexual/ Bi or not.
Depicting Jesus as being anything to do with it, not a good thing. John could have been for all I know, but Jesus if he fulfilled the Law of Moses, could not have commited that.
2007-06-05 14:21:20
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answer #7
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answered by Christian Sinner 7
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omg, i have never heard something so iggnorant. Jesus loves everyone, as it says in the bible and as it is because it is true, we are all gods children. that means we are all jesus's siblings, do you love your siblings, even if you are an only child you kno what i mean. Jesus loved everyone, and it says that in the bible jesus loves you too so does that mean that he likes you in a gay way. No not at all, come think about it, how iggnorant can you be.
2007-06-05 14:38:49
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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I think i just heard the thump of 234,409 christians falling over from cardiac arrest after reading this question. You are gonna get some crazy hateful answers. Love the fact that you posed such a question!!!!!
2007-06-05 14:20:51
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answer #9
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answered by candy licker 3
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hmmm, they could make a sequal to the da vinci code, where John is the husband of Jesus
2007-06-05 14:19:53
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answer #10
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answered by bregweidd 6
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