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please!christians answer this questions only. Thank you

2007-05-18 15:02:19 · 2 answers · asked by Prechaman 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

2 answers

If the woman is called, then she should preach.

Who was the first to tell her city of Jesus? the woman at the well (John's Gospel).

Who ran from the tomb and told Peter and John? Women

Deborah - a Judge of the nation of Israel. (gasp - a woman)

Acts 21:9 And the same man had four daughters, virgins, which did prophesy (women prophets?)

Acts 16:14 - The story of Lydia (who shared the gospel)

Romans 16:1 Phoebe and Pauls command to do whatever she asks.

Romans 16:2 - Priscilla - and the works she did for the church


1 Cor 16:19 Priscilla - again, the church met in her house. Could she have been the leader?

2Tim 4:19 Paul's command to salute Prisca and Aquilla (she obviously was more than a layminister)

2007-05-21 09:16:51 · answer #1 · answered by Christmas Light Guy 7 · 2 1

No, women are admonished in the Sriptures to not be in authority in church.

From 1 Corinthians (ESV Translation)
1Co 14:34 the women should keep silent in the churches. For they are not permitted to speak, but should be in submission, as the Law also says.
1Co 14:35 If there is anything they desire to learn, let them ask their husbands at home. For it is shameful for a woman to speak in church.

The instructions which Paul is giving to the Corinthian saints do not apply to them alone. These are the same instructions that have been addressed to all the churches of the saints. The uniform testimony of the NT is that while women have many valuable ministries, it is not given to them to have a public ministry to the whole church. They are entrusted with the unspeakably important work of the home and of raising children. But they are not allowed to speak publicly in the assembly. Theirs is to be a place of submission to the man. This rule is positive, explicit, and universal. There is no ambiguity in the expressions; and there can be no difference of opinion, one would suppose, in regard to their meaning.

The expression as the law also says has reference to the woman's being submissive to the man. This is clearly taught in the law, which here probably means the Pentateuch primarily. Gen_3:16, for instance, says “your desire shall be for your husband. And he shall rule over you.”

It is often contended that what Paul is forbidding in this verse is for the women to chatter or gossip while the service is going on. However, such an interpretation is not supportable. The word here translated speak (laleo) did not mean to chatter in Koine Greek. The same word is used of God in verse 21 of this chapter, and in Heb_1:1. It means to speak authoritatively.

14:35 Indeed, women are not permitted to ask questions publicly in the church. If they want to learn something, they should ask their own husbands at home. Some women might try to evade the previous prohibition against speaking by asking questions. It is possible to teach by the simple act of questioning others. So this verse closes any such loophole or objection.

There is, therefore, no inconsistency between the argument in 1 Cor. 11: and the statement here; and the force of the whole is, that on every consideration it was improper, and to be expressly prohibited, for women to conduct the devotions of the church. It does not refer to those only who claimed to be inspired, but to all; it does not refer merely to acts of public preaching, but to all acts of speaking, or even asking questions, when the church is assembled for public worship.

No rule in the New Testament is more positive than this; and however plausible may be the reasons which may be urged for disregarding it, and for suffering women to take part in conducting public worship, yet the authority of the apostle Paul is positive, and his meaning cannot be mistaken; compare 1Ti_2:11-12.

If it is asked how this applies to an unmarried woman or a widow, the answer is that the Scriptures do not try to take up each individual case, but merely set forth general principles. If a woman does not have a husband, she could ask her father, her brother, or one of the elders of the church. Actually, this may be translated, “Let them ask their men-folks at home.” The basic rule to be remembered is that it is shameful for women to speak in church.

14:36 Apparently the Apostle Paul realized that his teaching here would cause considerable contention. How right he was! To meet any arguments, he uses irony in verse 36 by asking: Or did the word of God come originally from you? Or was it you only that it reached? In other words, if the Corinthians professed to know more about these matters than the apostle, he would ask them if they, as a church, produced the word of God, or if they were the only ones who had received it. By their attitude they seemed to set themselves up as an official authority on these matters. But the facts are that no church originated the word of God, and no church has exclusive rights to it.

14:37 In connection with all the foregoing instructions, the apostle here emphasizes that they are not his own ideas or interpretations, but that they are the commandments of the Lord, and any man who is a prophet of the Lord or who is truly spiritual will acknowledge that that is the case. This verse is a sufficient answer to those who insist that some of Paul's teachings, especially those concerning women, reflected his own prejudices. These matters are not Paul's private view; they are the commandments of the Lord.

2007-05-19 15:22:59 · answer #2 · answered by Ask Mr. Religion 6 · 1 2

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