If this plan calls for a $5,000 fine (payable over 8 years!) for breaking existing law, how can this imposed if there is no criminal conviction?
And if there is no criminal conviction, isn't this fine just a TAX?
2007-05-18 06:37:59 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
When you pay a speeding ticket by waiver, that IS a conviction. Name another program that allows you to break the law, then pay a fine without a conviction
2007-05-18 08:06:40 · update #1
Actually the whole program is a crock and the only thing you see wrong is a $10/week "fine"? This is the equivalent to rewarding millions of criminals with amnesty and legal status, which I find a lot more ridiculous than the "fine".
2007-05-18 06:47:08 · answer #1 · answered by Jim 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Lots of fines are collected without criminal convictions - you just don't contest the acusation.
And, why shouldn't it be a tax, it's supposed to help make up for the back taxes illegals haven't been paying all this time - and it's a bargain for them. 60 billion dollars if they all go for it - less than Americans pay in taxes to support the War for a few months.
2007-05-18 06:42:48 · answer #2 · answered by B.Kevorkian 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Ever pay a speeding ticket without going to court?
2007-05-18 06:49:47 · answer #3 · answered by grdnoviz 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
8 YEARS????? WTF? Can I get a loan from the government for the rest of my car? I bet there isnt any interest either.
2007-05-18 06:45:53 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋