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RS reads: “Of the Son he says, ‘Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever.’” (KJ, NE, TEV, Dy, JB, NAB have similar renderings.) However, NW reads: “But with reference to the Son: ‘God is your throne forever and ever.’” (AT, Mo, TC, By convey the same idea.)

Which rendering is harmonious with the context? The preceding verses say that God is speaking, not that he is being addressed; and the following verse uses the expression “God, thy God,” showing that the one addressed is not the Most High God but is a worshiper of that God. Hebrews 1:8 quotes from Psalm 45:6, which originally was addressed to a human king of Israel. Obviously, the Bible writer of this psalm did not think that this human king was Almighty God. Rather, Psalm 45:6, in RS, reads “Your divine throne.” (NE says, “Your throne is like God’s throne.” JP [verse 7]: “Thy throne given of God.”) Solomon, who was possibly the king originally addressed in Psalm 45, was said to sit “upon Jehovah’s throne.” (1 Chron. 29:23, NW) In

2007-05-18 00:31:05 · 6 answers · asked by Punter 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

harmony with the fact that God is the “throne,” or Source and Upholder of Christ’s kingship, Daniel 7:13, 14 and Luke 1:32 show that God confers such authority on him.

Hebrews 1:8, 9 quotes from Psalm 45:6, 7, concerning which the Bible scholar B. F. Westcott states: “The LXX. admits of two renderings: [ho the•os′] can be taken as a vocative in both cases (Thy throne, O God, . . . therefore, O God, Thy God . . . ) or it can be taken as the subject (or the predicate) in the first case (God is Thy throne, or Thy throne is God . . . ), and in apposition to [ho the•os′ sou] in the second case (Therefore God, even Thy God . . . ). . . . It is scarcely possible that [’Elo•him′] in the original can be addressed to the king. The presumption therefore is against the belief that [ho the•os′] is a vocative in the LXX. Thus on the whole it seems best to adopt in the first clause the rendering: God is

2007-05-18 00:32:31 · update #1

6 answers

The Lord Thy God is ONE GOD

2007-05-18 00:38:21 · answer #1 · answered by Sandy S 2 · 2 0

Sometimes you just have to pray and trust the feeling you get as the correct answer.

It appears that you are taking a scholarly approach to a collection of books that are esoteric, meant to be contemplated on, and not dissected.

In other words you are reading the owners manual to try to find out what the price of gas currently is selling at.

2007-05-18 07:34:16 · answer #2 · answered by Yahoo 6 · 1 0

Although there is no other similar occurrence in the entire bible, Trinitarians claim that Hebrews 1:8 has the FATHER calling the SON by the expression "O God".

(RSV: "But of the Son he says, "Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever")


In actuality that scripture agrees better with the rest of the bible when it is understood that the Father serves as Jesus' 'throne', or source of authority. As the questioner notes, the Father was similarly referred to as the eternal 'throne' of Israel's human kings.
(Psalm 45:1,6 RSV: "I address my verses to the king; ...Your divine throne endures for ever and ever.)

In other words, God Himself is the source and basis of all theocratic majesty. Hebrews 1:8 does not support the trinity, but agrees with the rest of the bible that Jesus is appointed by God and thus is a separate distinct person from Jehovah God the Father.

Jehovah's Witnesses teach that no salvation occurs without Christ, that accepting Christ's sacrifice is a requirement for true worship, that every prayer must acknowledge Christ, that Christ is the King of God's Kingdom, that Christ is the head of the Christian congregation, that Christ is immortal and above every creature, even that Christ was the 'master worker' in creating the universe!

Jehovah's Witnesses love and respect and honor Christ. However, Jehovah's Witnesses believe that the Scriptures quite plainly demonstrate that Jesus and the Almighty are separate distinct persons, and the Almighty created Jesus as His firstborn son.

(Philippians 2:5-6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God

(John 12:49) I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak

(1 Corinthians 15:28) But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him

(1 Corinthians 11:3) I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; ...in turn the head of the Christ is God

(John 20:17) I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.

(Deuteronomy 6:4) Jehovah our God is one Jehovah

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

Thanks again for an opportunity to share what the bible actually says about the distinct persons of Jesus Christ the Son and Jehovah God the Father!

Learn more!
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/20050422/

2007-05-18 17:54:46 · answer #3 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 0 0

yes, the 3 are 1

2007-05-18 09:03:06 · answer #4 · answered by Matthew 4 · 0 0

That verse says nothing about the trinity. Where does it say that God is composed of 3 co-equal, co-eternal persons called gods who combine to become one God? Where is the third person in this verse? Do you see him? I don't.

2007-05-18 08:18:15 · answer #5 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 0 0

Yeah just pray and that will give you the answer
Or how about this research it for yourself

2007-05-18 07:36:40 · answer #6 · answered by Johnny w 2 · 1 0

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