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2Ti 3:16 Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness. (ASV)

Did he mean both testaments or just the New one?

If your answer is "both testaments", then why do you disregard many OT teachings?

2007-05-12 19:56:05 · 10 answers · asked by Black Hole Gravity Unleashed 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

So By "Jesus' Sacrifice" the law was fullfilled, Does that mean Discard and ignore teachings like "Killing anyone who curses his parents", or "Stoning homosexuals" or "Not eating the swine" and other teachings in the OT?

2007-05-12 20:07:43 · update #1

10 answers

Both. But he was really talking about how profitable christianity was, even in those days.

Let me explain.
There are 3 key reasons why the parasitic religion of Paul of Tarsus consumed the true Nazarene religion of Jesus and the apostles.

1. Paul of Tarsus and Josephus ben Matthias (St. Luke) had the whole scriptoriums of the Jewish High Priests at their disposal. They hired every scholar they could find and created the world's first publishing house- that's right they were publishing Bibles, similar to today as early as 54 CE- which is impressive considering it was all done by hand.

2. The Nazarenes under James the Just had decided to focus on saving millions from starvation across the Middle East during the greatest drought for hundreds of years from 44 CE to 55 CE. As a result, they were distracted and did not spend enough time abroad.

3. The charity work of the Nazarenes in spending the money of Jesus's father to save milliosn spread across the ancient world allowing Paul to create the concept of false charity- of non-profit fraud whereby they stole money from wealthy people who thought they were donating it to the Nazarenes and instead used it to finance the parasite of christianity.
See:
http://one-faith-of-god.org/new_testament/apocrypha/founders_christianity/founders_christianity_0010.htm

So in the end, I think Paul was really speaking about profit and money making and less about scripture.

2007-05-12 19:57:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

He didn't mean the New one at all. He meant the Old one only, and probably only a portion of that. Remeber - he is talking about the Scriptures that Timothy knew "from his youth," and was writing at a time when much of the New Testament did not exist.

As for why so much of the Old Testament is disregarded, that is a long subject. Many Old Testament regulations were no practiced by the time of Christ, and many were never practiced at all. The Law of Moses was never meant for personal practice - it was the civil law of Judea when the exiles returned from Babylon. And even then, the Jews did not expect Gentiles to adhere to the laws of the Old Testament, and the Apostles agreed that this principle applied to Christians as well (Acts 15). Jesus himself was careful to point out that the Law of Moses was actually given by Moses. On the subject of divorce, for example, Jesus points out that it was Moses who allowed divorce, even though that was not the will of God.

2007-05-13 03:05:40 · answer #2 · answered by NONAME 7 · 2 0

We don't disregard them. We regard them as being fulfilled. They were rehearsals for Jesus's coming that are no longer necessary. Read Romans 7:1-6 and Romans 14 for the rest of Paul's take on this.

EDIT: Actually, the New Testament teaches specifically how we are to act in light of the fulfilled law. Jesus teaches that we must observe the spirit, not just the letter, of the moral commands of the OT. The NT provides very clear outlines on this point, you just have to read them.

2007-05-13 03:00:06 · answer #3 · answered by Free Ranger 4 · 2 0

Christ came to fullfill the law.

By the blood of bulls and goats shall no flesh be spared.


For it is by grace we are saved and not of works lest any man should boast.

The Old Testament was a covenant sealed with the blood of animals.
The New Testament is a new covenant sealed with the blood of Christ.

Nice question

2007-05-13 02:59:21 · answer #4 · answered by Lover of God 3 · 1 0

He was talking to Timothy, and at that time many of the books of the NT had not been written, so he was refering to the OT. A proof of this is that verse 15 says “and that from infancy you have known (the) sacred scriptures",. When Timothy was a child there was no NT

2007-05-13 03:03:46 · answer #5 · answered by jemayen 2 · 0 0

The old testament is the law and the new is grace through Jesus Christ. Just because something is profitable doesn't mean you do what it told people under that dispensation to do.

2007-05-13 03:10:07 · answer #6 · answered by expertless 5 · 0 1

Both.

Because when Jesus came he fulfilled the law making much of it void as far as it's application to us gentiles.

2007-05-13 03:00:55 · answer #7 · answered by Chaplain John 4 · 1 0

I don't. I respect the fact that Christ fulfilled the law. In no way would I ever dismiss the word of God...It is forever.

2007-05-13 02:59:39 · answer #8 · answered by djmantx 7 · 2 1

Both. Formulate your entire question instead of just insinuating it.

2007-05-13 03:00:44 · answer #9 · answered by Arnon 6 · 0 2

they are dumb

2007-05-13 02:57:47 · answer #10 · answered by icycloud 3 · 1 2

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