Is the "US and WE" used in religious books a perfect example of the DANGER of translating Divine Revelation ?

Question

In Divine texts God refers to himself in the most majestic terms.

Just like in some ancient kingdoms the courts would refer to the King in the plural sense to show honor and majesty.

THIS is exactly why the words in Aramaic and Arabic (maybe also Hebrew) have words which refer to God in the Absolute single tense – they are impossible to be used in the plural sense but when they are TRANSLATED, to show their majestic meaning in the original language, they are made into WE and US .

This is an example of the EXTREME danger when Revealed books are translated and re-translated without keeping the original Aramaic or Arabic.


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Answer 1

you are beyond help

Answer 2

The Hebrew word Elohim is the plural of El and is the Hebrew word used in the original text of Genesis 1. Like the first answer, a person can be dangerous if they don't know what they are talking about. This issue cannot be passed over by saying that there are so many different versions of the Bible, they can't all be right. In fact, the different translations are to different languages. Even in the English language there are different language styles. People read a Bible hoping to find a version that matches their reading style. You can take the Holy Bible in the KJV, NKJV, NIV, NLT, CEV, NASB, and RSV and they all have the same message in different wording. That is to help the reader. Then on top of that there are Study Bibles that have commentary alongside the passages, and those commentaries are written by religious scholars. Then there are Bibles with center column references to a previous place in the Bible that said the same thing. It is like citing other passages as the foundation of the passage that you are reading. There is still another Bible with outside column references for those who prefer that style. There is still another Bible with wide margins so that you can take notes yourself from something you heard in a sermon that made the passage become more alive. However in no case is the text compromised from this. The NKJV reads the same with commentary or without commentary. It is your choice depending on how deeply you wish to study the Bible. The OT was written in Hebrew except for 6 chapters of Daniel, and they were written in Aramaic in order that Israel's neighbors could understand it. The NT was written in Koine Greek, the classical language of the first century AD. grace2u

Answer 3

I see what you are getting at. We know that Jesus spoke Aramaic, which is almost extinct today. Before Jesus, what language did people speak? Did Adam and Eve, Cain, Abel, Seth...speak Aramaic? Did Moses, Aaron speak Aramaic? Moses was raised in Egypt by the Pharoah's daughter, yet his real mother was his nursemaid for several years. Did the Pharoah and Moses' birthmother speak Aramaic? What language did King Saul, King David, Goliath, speak? And Jacob, Isaac, Isaiah.... all speak? Was there one language of all the land in the OT or a few languages? Then going back to Jesus - He spoke Aramaic but His mother, Mary was a Jew (descendent of the Israelites/Hebrews), so did Mary speak Aramaic or Hebrew? And what language was the first written word written in? When men began to actually write the word of God down on parchment, was it written in Aramaic or Hebrew?

I ask all of this because how does anyone know for sure what language(s) were spoken in the OT because for hundreds of years the word of God was orally handed down to believers and if there were different languages then, translations would have had a few errors. Right? Then when the written language came into existence, more errors could have happened. Right?

So how do YOU know about singular and plural forms way back then? And in many languages, they have masculine and feminine words for the same word. So when translating from one language to another, errors can always happen. Right?

Who all past down the words from Moses? Who actually wrote those words? And in what language? God inspired all the authors of the Bible. Did God inspire all the translators as well? How do YOU know for sure that God didn't say "We" and "Us" verse "Me" and "I"?

Answer 4

The Royal We was taken for the word of God. God is Father. Son and Holy Spirit he was not mimicking man but we copy him as an example of Majesty. The Qu'ranic Allah god does copy the true God in this speak and Muslims call it the Royal we yet the Bible predates this practice of man. Hebrews did not refer to royalty in plural. Just one of many mistakes Muhammad made.

Answer 5

Yes, were blessed that G-d revealed to us as much as He did! He knew things would be taken out of context, mistranslated and misunderstood. But the truth was so important for us, that it had to get out somehow. He also knew that we could only understand something... in time. Can a person read a book instantly and understand it instantaneously? No that's not how the nature of our brain works. We need time to read the book, engage in the story so that we can even begin to know and be able to understand what it says. One reason why I think Jesus spoke in parables was to conceal what was not meant to be known by those whos hearts would not be ready to hear what He had to say and yet be able to be understood by those who were ready to hear.