In Genesis when God talks about creating man he says let us create man in our image.
also in Genesis at the tower of Babel God says let us go confuse their languages.
2007-05-12 19:41:11
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answer #1
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answered by BigWurster 4
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Jweston2 makes a good point about the name Elohim having a plural nature. From what I've read Elohim may also have a superlative connotation (as in "God of Gods", or "Greatest of the Gods").
While there is no direct reference to the Trinity in the OT, there are several passages which may help. For example, in Ezekiel 34 God claims that He will directly participate in the searching out and feeding of His flock (the role of Shepherd), which is usually seen as the role of Jesus. The Holy Spirit (referred to in some Jewish texts as Shekinah) often appears in the Old Testament, but is called by many other names....usually "the Glory of God" or a "shining cloud of Glory"....that sort of thing.
The idea that these are unique aspects or personalities of a single being really got it's start at the Council of Nicea in approximately 330 A.D.. This was probably the most hotly debated topic of the entire Council, as many Christians of the time were not even certain of Christ's divinity. They also had available to the the "Book of Enoch", which speaks of a Messiah waiting in Heaven for God to send Him down (He is called "God's Chosen One" if I recall correctly, and is apparently not viewed as part of the Godhead by Enoch. (hence why the book of Enoch was rejected as part of Scriptural Canon!)
Anyway, I hope this answer helps.
2007-05-12 20:05:53
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answer #2
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answered by ? 5
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The Trinity is a concept adopted by the early church to describe the persons of God and how they interact with making...it wasn't until the Council of Ephesus in the fifth century that the Doctrine of the Trinity was formalized.
In a word, no, but it does help in understanding the Trinity if you know what to look for.
2007-05-12 19:44:05
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answer #3
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answered by N.K. 1
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Some think Gen. 1:26 is reference of the trinity. But is it? At Genesis 1:26, we read that Jehovah said: “Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness.” To whom was he addressing these words? Referring to the spirit creature who became the perfect man Jesus, the apostle Paul said: “He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and upon the earth.” (Colossians 1:15, 16) Yes, it seems logical that at Genesis 1:26, Jehovah was speaking to his only-begotten Son, the “master worker,” who was at his side during the creation of the heavens and the earth. (Proverbs 8:22-31) The similarity of the expression at Genesis 3:22 suggests that Jehovah was again speaking to the one closest to him, his only-begotten Son.
People who use Gen. 1:26 as trinitarian support are grabbing for straws. Elo·him' means, not "persons," but "gods." So those who argue that this word implies a Trinity make themselves polytheists, worshipers of more than one God. Why? Because it would mean that there were three gods in the Trinity. But nearly all Trinity supporters reject the view that the Trinity is made up of three separate gods.
Trinitarians who use Gen. 1:26 to support their belief completely ignore the very next verse which says: "And God proceeded to create the man in his image, in God’s image he created him; male and female he created them." If you will notice, it says God created man in HIS image (not OUR image). So Gen. 1:26 cannot be used as a trinitarian reference.
2007-05-12 19:40:24
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answer #4
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answered by LineDancer 7
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Not specifically that I know of. Some people argue that the first chapter of Genesis precludes the trinity in the way that it refers to God.
2007-05-12 19:42:48
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answer #5
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answered by Ajo 2
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Yes,
Harper’s Bible Dictionary
Baal / Bel ,
translates into English as Lord
offspring of El, (Hebrew for God)
worshiped as a triad / trinity.
Jehovah is never described as a trinity.
Why I can’t believe in the royal we, idea to Genesis 1:26 and 3:22,
If Jehovah talked with the royal we or us, etc, why did He only do it only 4-5 times.
Why didn’t He or doesn’t He continue to do to so through out the bible.
Why didn’t He use the royal we at Gen. 1:29, 30 only 3 verses later, or Gen. 2:18, Gen. 3:11, 15
and through out the rest of the bible? Why at Isa. 6:8, does Jehovah say “Whom shall I send”?
Job 38:4-7 shows that the angels were existing at the creation of man, so Jehovah wasn’t alone and had many spirit creatures to talk to.
Instead, which sounds more real and truthful, that Jehovah was talking to someone who is His Master Worker, His Firstborn Son, His Faithful Witness, who is His image, His exact representation, OR He was talking to Himself. (Prov. 8:30; Heb. 1:3; Col 1:15)
Bible scholar Donald E. Gowan said “There is no support in the O[ld] T[estament] for most of the proposed explanations: the royal ‘we,’ the deliberative ‘we,’ the plural of fullness, or an indication of a plurality of persons in the Godhead.
Why does the word Elohim according to Strong’s Cyclopaedia, when it applies to Jehovah means Supreme God, not Gods? Even when this word is applied to Moses (Ex. 4:16 & 7:1) it doesn’t mean that there are 3 Moses, it doesn’t even mean there are 2 Moses.
(Side point when Jesus said if you see me you see the Father, it is because he is the image of God, the exact representation of his Father. When you see an image in a mirror you are seeing a representation, not the actual person. Col 1:15)
(Side point, According to my college dictionary, begotten means “to be born”, to be born means “brought into life or being” when was Jesus brought into life, when he came to life as a baby? No, as Jehovah’s Firstborn of creation Col. 1:15; Rev 3:14)
2007-05-16 11:31:56
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answer #6
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answered by TeeM 7
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Jewish scholars ALL agree the Trinity is polytheism and foreign to the Abrahamic message of Monotheism.
The Trinity is Not the same as the GOD of the Jews & Muslims.
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2007-05-12 19:43:24
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answer #7
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answered by wwhy 3
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Genesis 1, 26
Genesis 3, 22
Genesis 11, 5-7
Psalms 2, 7
Psalms 109, 1-3
2007-05-12 19:48:17
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answer #8
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answered by Arnon 6
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In Gen when He says "Let US" plural is accurate. The bible is filled with 3's, FILLED. The one quote that is such a clue is "I am the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob". They are a type of God the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. 3 separate entities but ONE in purpose. Jesus said "I and my Father are One, " and "if you have seen me you have seen the Father" I am not a strict trinitarian, I just recognize the mystery of some of the 3's in the bible. On the other hand,to ridicule the thought of 3 in ONE as a 3 headed monster is utterly ridiculous.
The fact is: there is no simple answer to your ? I know of. Irregardless of our theology, my salvation is secure in Jesus.
2007-05-12 20:06:52
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answer #9
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answered by B00G1 3
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One of the Hebrew names for God, "Elohim", is a demonstration of the plurality of the God of Israel, and thus evidence for the Trinity.
2007-05-12 19:48:43
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answer #10
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answered by w2 6
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The word Trinity is NEVER used in the bible.
2007-05-12 19:41:53
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answer #11
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answered by LadyCatherine 7
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