Yes.
Both Pauls words and Jesus' words, if he existed, have ZERO divinity. So, both are just as mundane as each other.
Of course, I'm only guessing, because we really don't have any words of Jesus. He never wrote anything. But if he actually existed, his words would have been just another person's opinion, just like Paul. And I would guess that he believed the same sort of superstition that Paul believed.
2007-05-12 04:20:53
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answer #1
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answered by nondescript 7
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You raise an interesting point here. Jesus was the literal son of God on Earth and was therefore perfect, everything Jesus said was right. Paul on the other hand was a man like you and me and libel to error therefore it is possible that he made mistakes when he spoke. I think when he was under the power of the Holy Ghost that his word were Divine but when not under that influence he was just as fallible as we are.
2007-05-12 11:23:31
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answer #2
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answered by Ethan M 5
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Well, Paul penned more books than anyone else in the Bible and since the books are the inspired word of God, what do you think? Don't forget that Paul is now in heaven with Jesus and will rule as an associate king with Jesus over the earth.
2007-05-12 11:20:34
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes I believe so, because the words of Paul that are recorded in what we now call the New Testament, were divinely inspired, aka, inspired by God.
2007-05-12 11:22:46
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answer #4
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answered by Emma Michele 2
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Paul's words = Jesus words = human words
2007-05-12 11:20:54
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answer #5
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answered by Irreverend 6
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I wouldn't say that - but if it's in the bible I believe you could actually see it as God's word anyway, so it should all be equally "divine" in one sense...
2007-05-12 11:21:26
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answer #6
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answered by Craig H 3
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Supposedly many were just the mouthpiece of God or a deity.Some believe that Jesus was really the Archangel Michael. I think it depends on the message anyway, so, why not?
2007-05-12 11:26:41
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes. In all likelihood, neither is divine.
2007-05-12 11:22:35
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answer #8
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answered by Dylan H 3
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words are not divine, actions and activities define...
2007-05-12 11:23:09
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answer #9
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answered by richardnattress 2
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Yes! By the Holy Spirit Inspiration, by revelation.
In Galathians 1:11-12 we read; But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.
For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.
PS: Who said Jesus was the literal son of God on Earth?
The Oneness Of God
God is Spirit. You need to bring the concept of Jesus, up to the Spiritual Level and quite looking at the physical.
Christians are monotheistic and believe that God is one. But both in His work in accomplishing salvation through the Person of Jesus Christ and through biblical study it has become clear that His oneness in fact comprises three Persons- Father, Son (Jesus Christ), and the third Person of the Godhead, the Holy Spirit.
The notion of God, who is three-in-one, is part of both the mystery and greatness of God. God is in essence one while in Persons three. This truth helps us understand God as truly personal and having the capacity to relate to other persons.
As well, Christians confirm the holiness, sovereignty, and greatness of God.
How can Jesus be the Son of God?
Scripture affirms that Jesus was conceived supernaturally by the Holy Spirit and was born of the Virgin Mary. It does not in any way claim that Jesus was directly God the Father's biological and physical son.
Jesus is the Son in a symbolic manner designating that He was God the Word who became man in order to save humankind from its sin. The virgin birth was supernatural as God the Holy Spirit conceived in Mary, without physical relations, Jesus the Messiah.
PS:
Many wonder why Jesus, whom claimed the Old Testament, was about him, and yet his name is never found in the Old Testament?
Example - In John 5:39, Jesus says; Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me.
Or take John 5:46 for another example. Where Jesus says; For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me. The answer for this is a simple one, when we take into consideration, His actual name in Hebrew is Yahshua and means Salvation.
However, in translation, it’s the “Literal” meaning, of his name that is used, as in Matthew 1:23 “And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.” Jesus in the Greek means Savior.
Showing it was his literal name used in translation, instead of the “Actual” Hebrew name – Yahshua, as in Isaiah 7:14 says; “Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.”
The Old Testament did point to Jesus; but with His Hebrew name, Yahshua.
Even more specifically, our Messiah's Name is YAHSHUA = YAH IS SALVATION.
For Jesus (Yahshua) has come in His Father's Name and His Father's name is YHWH - Yahweh for He (Yahshua) Jesus is the Yah of Yahweh that brings Salvation.
PS: Jesus is the Alpha and Omega, meaning he was in the beginning, before the beginning, for all things that was created, was created by him - Whose name is I AM.
Therefore he is before all thing. Everything "begins" and ends with him. This world had a beginning and it has a ending. He is the one of whom this earth and the heavens fled, according to Revelation. It is he, whom stepped into time B.C Jesus A. D.
He is also the "First" and the "Last" meaning that before him there is none other, and the "Last" meaning, there is none equal to, or greater than he is!
2007-05-12 11:24:48
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answer #10
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answered by n_007pen 4
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