(This might sound a little like Abbot and Costello but here goes)
If we are ignorant of some evidence that could be considered evidence of some ignorance. We can't have knowledge of all evidence so that is evidence that we are all ignorant of something. Evidently some of us are just more ignorant than others.
2007-05-12 07:05:06
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answer #1
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answered by Aria 3
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If the evidence you are speaking of is the evidence that this earth is billions of years old, and that evidence is ignored by groups saying that the Bible states the earth is about 6000 years old, then yes, it is pure ignorance on the part of those groups, and not only ignorance, but pure Biblical illiteracy. The Bible states this earth is uncountable eons in age, and that there was even an entire earth age before this one we live in now.
Yeah, I quess ignorance is bliss, ya know?
2007-05-12 10:11:40
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Would it be possible for any one person to have adequate information on every topic? I don’t see how. We are all ignorant about most things. When it comes to language, for example, I only speak English and a little Spanish. Therefore, I am ignorant of most languages.
2007-05-12 10:17:16
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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It depends on how ignorant one is toward the truth.
2007-05-12 11:43:19
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answer #4
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answered by SeeTheLight 7
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Depends on what type of evidence it is. False, misleading or factual.
2007-05-12 10:11:02
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answer #5
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answered by singwritelaugh 4
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Very well could be the case ... but which came first: The crockaduck or the egg?
2007-05-12 10:09:36
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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no!
just like believing a lie does not make the lie true
2007-05-12 10:14:09
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answer #7
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answered by ! 6
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Yes, very well put
2007-05-12 10:14:33
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answer #8
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answered by Faz 4
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What?
2007-05-12 10:11:22
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Indeed it is.
2007-05-12 10:09:31
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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