For example the name Diana sounds like it is being pronounced "Dianer".
2007-05-10 14:54:52 · 12 answers · asked by Hot Coco Puff 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Because my deeeeaaaarr that's how posh people are taught to speak.....with a plum in their aahhhh .....throat !
I know , it's weird but that's what separates the bootiful people from the rest of us peasants !
2007-05-10 15:58:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
In linguistics it's called over-correction. Many words that end with "r" when pronounced in American English aren't in British English. Parts of Britain with different dialects retain the "r". People that add an "r" where one doesn't belong are trying to make their pronounciation sound like other words where the "r" is pronounced.
The same phenomenon happens in New England in the US. Generally, people there don't pronounce "r" at the end of a word. For example, they would pronounce "car" as cah. But, when it comes to the word "idea" they'll add an "r" where it doesn't belong saying "idear".
It's much the same thing as people saying "between you and I". Growing up you get corrected so much when you say, "Me and Danny went to the movie." Someone is always around to correct you saying, "No, it's Danny and I." So you wind up overcorrecting and saying "you and I" when it really should be "you and me." So, whenever you hear someone say, "He bought this for you and I," just remember they're over-correcting. Think about it. If you were going to say, "He bought this for I," it would sound really strange. Just because someone says, "you and ..." doesn't mean the second one can't be "me." If it would sound right with "me" when no "you" is there then "me" is correct.
2007-05-10 15:53:12 · answer #2 · answered by marcosarroyos2003 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The only way the 'end times' can be studied, is if they already happened.
2016-05-20 01:21:27 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's actually not the Queen's English. It is a dialect. I'm not sure if it's Cochney or some other. Your question would be like saying why do people speaking American English all say y'all instead of you all. The point is that they don't... saying "y'all" is distinctly a southern accent. People from Britain can place people to different regions of their country also, by the distinct dialects of those regions.
2007-05-10 17:57:31 · answer #4 · answered by David T 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because that's the accent? What kind of rediculous question is this?
Why when anyone speaking English with any accents says a certain letter does it sound the way it does?
There's no scientific process which accounts for why they speak as such. It's received pronounciation.
2007-05-10 14:59:21 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
its a matter of opinion.their is nothing more boring than listening to drawling speech.i think cockneys have the best accent.those of us who are born under the sound of bow bells.
2007-05-10 23:57:06 · answer #6 · answered by earl 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Oi darnt noo saary!
2007-05-10 15:17:11 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's cuz they are pohwsh. Did you know it's apparently 'better' to say lavatory instead of toilet? Fascinating stuff...
2007-05-10 15:01:03 · answer #8 · answered by Flaze 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
It's something to do with one's education - jolly hockey sticks and all that... ok yar?
2007-05-10 15:08:36 · answer #9 · answered by Polo 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
hola te saluda dannyel y mexico
2007-05-10 15:01:12 · answer #10 · answered by <-·´¯`·. [dannyel] .·´¯`·-> 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋