Nowhere, really.
The passages in Leviticus (18:22 and 20:13), understood IN THE CONTEXT of the time and place, are not an admonishment against loving sexual relationships between people of the same sex but instead against sex as a form of domination and control. Besides, these passages are part of the Holiness Code which is not binding to modern day Christians (or anyone else for that matter).
The story of Sodom and Gomorrah was a warning against rape, inhospitality and xenophobia. The reason for Sodom's destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50. According to Ezekiel, the sins of Sodom were pride, laziness, being inhospitable, neglecting the needs of the poor, greed, and idolatry (the worshiping of idols). Nothing about homosexuality is mentioned. If Jude 1:7 describes anything about the sexual immorality and perversion in Sodom and Gomorrah, it's describing RAPE.
1 Corinthians 6:9 was a mistranslation of the word "malakee". It's used elsewhere in the Bible to mean someone who lacks discipline or one who is morally weak, and never is it used in reference to sexuality or gender.
1 Timothy 1:9-10? Also a mistranslation. 1 Timothy was an admonishment against male prostitution, not committed, loving same sex relationships.
The words "physin" and "paraphysin" in Romans 1:26-27 have also been mistranslated. Contrary to popular belief, the word "paraphysin" does not mean "to go against the laws of nature", but rather implies action which is uncharacteristic for that particular person. An example of the word "paraphysin" is used in Romans 11:24, where God acts in an uncharacteristic (paraphysin) way to accept the Gentiles. When the scripture is understood correctly, it implies that it would be unnatural for heterosexuals to live as homosexuals and for homosexuals to live as heterosexuals.
2007-05-10 11:31:41
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answer #1
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answered by ZER0 C00L ••AM••VT•• 7
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The Bible consistently tells us that homosexual activity is a sin (Genesis 19:1-13; Leviticus 18:22; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9). Romans 1:26-27 teaches specifically that homosexuality is a result of denying and disobeying God. When a person continues in sin and disbelief, the Bible tells us that God “gives them over” to even more wicked and depraved sin in order to show them the futility and hopelessness of life apart from God. 1 Corinthians 6:9 proclaims that homosexual “offenders” will not inherit the kingdom of God.
2007-05-10 17:50:47
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answer #2
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answered by Freedom 7
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Emma is right...God loves His children. He is also sad when His children do what is wrong. In the end, if the child does not change, he or she will also come to an end. The Bible is true, and God does not change, only the human's perception of Him has changed through the centuries.
Recognized by so many answers before mine...the Bible does clearly state that homosexuality is a sin.
Now using logic...with Biblical back-up...if people were designed to reproduce through the act of copulation, then how is it natural for two people of the same gender to participate in the act of fornication which can not be copulating since two ++ naturally do not attract, as two -- naturally do not attract. Man+man=AIDS...Woman+woman=AIDS. Man+Wife=Children. Yes, a person can get AIDS by other means....
How do homosexuals reproduce? By utilizing recruiting tactics...they can not reproduce through sexual intercourse. Unless they do some bi-sexual activity. All of which are wrong because then a child will have to suffer the stigma (undeniable information) of living in a household with same-sex parents...you know one of the actual parents is absent. It is a sin to cause a child to stumble in the path of life. Jesus said it, so I believe it.
2007-05-18 10:21:31
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answer #3
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answered by Jalapinomex 5
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A number of places, and not just in Leviticus.
Romans 1: 24-27.
I Corinthians 6:9, 10
2007-05-10 11:42:22
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Homo-sexuality: You shall not lie with a male as one lies with a female (Lev.18:22); if a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both shall be put to death (Lev.20:13); male prostitutes are an abomination ( Deut. 23:18); God gave them over to the shameful lusts of homosexual relations (Rom. 1:26-27); neither the effeminate nor homosexuals will inherit the kingdom of God (1 Cor. 6:9); the law is for the immoral, homosexuals ( 1 Tim. 1:10); Bring out the men that we may have relations with them ( Gen. 19:5; Judg. 19:22); Sodom and Gomorrah practised homosexuality ( Jude 7)
2007-05-10 11:56:50
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answer #5
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answered by shelly 1
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Leviticus 18:22 Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind it is abomination. Leviticus 20:13 If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination, they shall surely be put to death, their blood shall be upon them. And also Romans 1:24-32, and 1 Corinthians 6:9-10.
2007-05-18 10:43:07
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answer #6
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answered by sparkplug 4
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Technically the word homosexuality is not in the Bible, only the description that only a man can have sex with a woman and vice versa. Not 2 men together and not 2 women together. And not with animals.
2013-11-12 08:14:28
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answer #7
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answered by Marsha M 1
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In answer, read for yourself what the apostle Paul said at 1 Corinthians 6:9, 10:
“What! Do you not know that unrighteous persons will not inherit God’s kingdom? Do not be misled. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men kept for unnatural purposes [“male prostitutes,” New International Version; “effeminate,” King James Version], nor men who lie with men [“sodomites,” Jerusalem Bible; “homosexual perverts,” Today’s English Version], nor thieves, nor greedy persons, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit God’s kingdom.”
Note that Paul specifically mentioned those who evidently take on a passive sexual role and those who assume a more active “male” role in their immoral relations. Thus he made it plain that God disapproves of all homosexual acts.
This is also evident from Paul’s words at Romans 1:18-27:
“God’s wrath is being revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who are suppressing the truth in an unrighteous way . . . God, in keeping with the desires of their hearts, gave them up to uncleanness, that their bodies might be dishonored among them . . . That is why God gave them up to disgraceful sexual appetites, for both their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature; and likewise even the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males, working what is obscene.”
Here Paul specifically condemned both male and female homosexuality. He condemned homosexual practices as unnatural and “obscene.”
There are also other Bible passages that show very clearly that it is wrong.
2007-05-10 11:43:04
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answer #8
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answered by Ousboui 2
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"For men shall be lovers of their own selves, covetous, boasters, proud, blasphemers, disobedient to parents, unthankful, unholy, without natural affection, trucebreakers, false accusers, incontinent, fierce, despisers of those that are good, Traitors, heady, highminded, lovers of pleasures more than lovers of God" -- 2 Tim 3:2-4 KJV
The third verse "Without Natural Affection". Natural = between Husband and Wife. Unnatural = all others outside Husband and Wife.
2007-05-10 13:36:58
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answer #9
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answered by Dr. G™ 5
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ROMANS 1:18-28
It is very clear in these scriptures. God created man and woman for a reason. It is wrong today and always has been wrong. And people manipulate the scriptures in alot of ways, but the scriptures pertaining to this is very clear. It is an abomination to God.
If I had time to look them up, I could give you several more. But this is very very clear
2007-05-15 14:33:59
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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In Leviticus 18:22 & 20:13 says it is an
abomination. It does not say unless you
are in love. But sin is sin please pray and
ask JESUS to help you and read the bible
for your self take GODS word not mans word.
2007-05-18 11:26:01
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answer #11
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answered by kbuckner2004 1
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