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Why does Mathew mention the word 'church' in his gospel. Few sentences only.

2007-05-10 00:16:51 · 8 answers · asked by Anthony 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

8 answers

Church is not necissarly about a building, church is more a gathering or group of people who beleive in Jesus, people will always be on about the bible have conspricies, it is the word of god, it is true, dont be fooled

2007-05-10 00:29:36 · answer #1 · answered by alias 3 · 1 0

Jesus is documented to have used an Aramaic word that's translated into the Greek word "ekklesia" (Strong's number 1577, usually translated as "church") 20 times in the NT:

Matthew 16:18 and 18:17; Revelation 1:11, 1:20, 2:1, 2:7 & 8, 2:11 & 12, 2:17 & 18, 2:23, 2:29, 3:1, 3:6 & 7, 3:13 & 14, 3:22 and 22:16.

As you can see, both Matthew and John quote Jesus as having used this word, which is also used by Paul throughout his Epistles; Luke in Acts; James; the unknown writer of Hebrews; and John within his letters. Because the word was used so much, it's not at all unusual that it appears in Matthew.

2007-05-10 07:39:49 · answer #2 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0 0

The words “church” and “churches” occur over 110 times in the King James Version. Other translations also use these terms. The Greek word translated “church” literally means “a calling forth,” or, in other words, a gathering of people.

2007-05-10 07:24:02 · answer #3 · answered by papa G 6 · 3 0

“Church” in Matthew 16:18 and 18:17 is the English translation of the Greek ἐκκλησία Transliteration: ekklēsia: from a compound of (ek) and a derivative of (kaleo); a calling out, i.e. (concretely) a popular meeting, especially a religious congregation (Jewish synagogue, or Christian community of members on earth or saints in heaven or both):- assembly, church. (Strong's Talking Greek & Hebrew Dictionary)

2007-05-10 07:32:00 · answer #4 · answered by John 1:1 4 · 1 0

The *church* was just starting to be established then. There are a lot of things we say today that was not then. MOST of the names of things you hear today are *Man* given names, that are not from the Original Texts. One MUST have understanding of these Texts to be able to distinguish the differences.

2007-05-10 07:28:40 · answer #5 · answered by Ex Head 6 · 0 0

Good question.

Some educated scholars believe that Matthew was really a re-work of possibly one of the first gospels and was called "Hebrews".
See:
http://one-faith-of-god.org/new_testament/gospels/matthew/matthew_0010.htm

The author is almost certainly Paul of Tarsus and its creation is quite possibly 51 to 55 CE.

Only later, once Paul was officially excommunicated by James the Just and the first "heretic" as well as the first anti-pope did the writings of Paul become more focused on building his church of christianity against the beliefs of Jesus and the disciples- the Nazarenes.
See:
http://one-faith-of-god.org/new_testament/apocrypha/founders_christianity/founders_christianity_0010.htm

2007-05-10 07:22:43 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

Rom 9:18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
Rom 9:19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
Rom 9:20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
Rom 9:21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
jtm

2007-05-10 07:23:28 · answer #7 · answered by Jesus M 7 · 0 1

Because Jesus founded the Church on Peter the Rock the first pope. And the gates of hell shall never prevail against her.

2007-05-10 07:23:31 · answer #8 · answered by carl 4 · 0 2

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