My husband is using this in a debate about women being grosser for sleeping with a lot ppl than men are.
2007-04-23 11:30:21 · 5 answers · asked by canadian housewife 3 in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ STDs
Yes, because the man deposits it into the woman. Men usually get it through a backwash effect only, and can sometimes eliminate that to some degree by urinating immediately after sex. Women can't do that.
The fact that women physically allow the man into their body during intercourse but the woman doesn't enter the man the same way, this makes sex distinctly a more intimate physical act on the part of a woman. He should be using this argument as well.
2007-04-23 11:36:11 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is easier for women to contract an STD as she has the majority of the bodily fluids being transmitted around her reproductive areas.
2007-04-24 04:00:41 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Transmission of HIV varies for a variety of reasons.
It's dangerous to make sweeping generalizations. The issue, first is if the person who are with is infect and honest.
Many people became infected because they thought they didn't meet the "demographic" for HIV.
2007-04-23 19:52:37 · answer #3 · answered by guru 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think we can't make sure. Here is no related exact infomation about it.
2007-04-27 05:16:29 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is
2007-04-23 19:24:10 · answer #5 · answered by boxing_fan_4_wlad 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋