a will is set up by the father it has (2) trusts (a) & (b) then some of the other properties have the mother as the owner. when father passes DOES IT MEAN THAT ANY PROPERTY THAT DID'NT HAVE MOTHERS NAME is split 50-50 between(a&(b trust?????
2007-04-22 16:12:45 · 3 answers · asked by big_daddy 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Taxes ➔ United States
tell me details
2007-04-25 14:24:57 · update #1
In addition to the answer above, wills must be enforceable. If the decedent's financial situation has changed to the point where a large portion of the assets can't be disposed of, the will can be considered inadequate and the entire estate decided by probate.
2007-04-22 16:26:48 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It doesn't mean anything--it's a ruse question. A trust has to be funded. Unless the property was bequeathed to the trust it passes by the laws of intestate succession unless the decedent had a Will specifying otherwise.
2007-04-22 23:19:27 · answer #2 · answered by David M 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Only if the properties were bequeathed to the trusts in the will.
2007-04-23 06:59:09 · answer #3 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋