Is it misleading of the press to imply that this:
"The conclusion of this study is that there are theological and liturgical reasons to hope that infants who die without baptism may be saved and brought into eternal happiness even if there is not an explicit teaching on this question found in revelation." -- 'The Hope of Salvation for Infants Who Die Without Being Baptised.' (2007)
http://news.yahoo.com/s/nm/20070420/ts_nm/pope_limbo_dc_2
...is a 180 degree turn from this?
"As regards children who have died without Baptism, the Church can only entrust them to the mercy of God, as she does in her funeral rites for them. Indeed, the great mercy of God who desires that all men should be saved, and Jesus' tenderness toward children which caused him to say: 'Let the children come to me, do not hinder them,' allow us to hope that there is a way of salvation for children who have died without Baptism." -- paragraph 1261 of Catechism of the Catholic Church (1992)
http://www.vatican.va/archive/catechism/p2s2c1a1.htm#VI
2007-04-20
16:49:23
·
8 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality