English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

In 2 Timothy 3:16-17, Was there a New Testament canon at the time Paul wrote that verse? If not, then what Scripture was he referring to?

What does 1 Timothy 3:15 indicate is the rule of faith? What do you believe is the rule of faith, and why?


What does 2 Peter 3:16 warn against? 2 Peter 1:20-21 says what?

2007-04-20 11:39:55 · 7 answers · asked by SpiritRoaming 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Dave, you always have well thought out answers.

Sola - when was Paul killed?

2007-04-20 11:52:41 · update #1

Again Sola - since they delivered much of the teaching orally, would that be the Tradition referred to in 2 Thess and 1 Cor??

2007-04-20 11:55:58 · update #2

7 answers

There was no New Testament canon at the time Paul wrote that verse. His epistles existed, as did some of the Gospels which would later comprise the Canon, but it was not officially assembled until later.

By virtue of her divinely-appointed authority, the Catholic Church determined the canon of Scripture (what books belong in the Bible) at the end of the 4th century. We therefore believe in the Scriptures on the authority of the Catholic Church.

The Church existed without an official "bible" for 300 years.

Therefore, the inspired word of God is not the only means of receiving divine truth. Scripture and Tradition carry equal authority and the Church interprets both since she is guided infallibly by the third person of the Holy Trinity, as God promised in 1 Tim. 3:15.

2007-04-20 13:06:35 · answer #1 · answered by Veritas 7 · 3 0

In general, the letters precede any of the gospels. However, there were oral traditions regarding the life and teachings of Jesus in the various communities (which became the basis for the gospels).

2 Timothy 3:16-17 refers to OT scripture.

1 Timothy 3:15 refers to the rest of the letter as the rule of faith.

2 Peter 3:16 is talking about some heresy which was popular at the time. It's hard to tell which one from the letter but there were a number of them.

2 Peter 1:20-21 seems to just be saying that a true prophesy in scripture comes from god and not the man who wrote the scriptures.

2007-04-20 18:44:07 · answer #2 · answered by Dave P 7 · 3 0

No there was no New Testament as of yet. The majority of Paul's writings and quotes were from the Old Testament, that and hearing word of mouth from the other Apostles. There is no sola scriptura. You cant have sola scriptura alone because Jesus did not teach that way. Yes He quoted from the Torah, but He also taught from the heart. There was not a secretary or stenographer sitting there taking notes. The Apostles also taught from the Torah, but mainly what Jesus taught them by mouth. And that is how they went about the countryside preaching the word, by mouth. There were no Barnes and Nobles on the way to pick up a copy of the Torah. The Torah was kept in one place.

2007-04-20 19:28:54 · answer #3 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 2 0

In the early age, the inspired apostles and prophets revealed God's Word orally--by the word of mouth. Later, they began to deliver God's law both orally and written. Peter said, "Beloved, I now write to you this second epistle (in both of which I stir up your pure minds by way of reminder), that you may be mindful of the words which were spoken before by the holy prophets, and of the commandment of us, the apostles of the Lord and Savior..." (2 Pet. 3:1-2). Thus, both the verbal scriptural teaching and the writings of the inspired men had equal authority because both were the product of the Holy Spirit. When the apostles and prophets passed from the earth, their inspired writings became the only means for receiving God's Word.
The New Testament books were in existence in their present form at the close of the apostolic age.
As a matter of fact, the apostles themselves put their writings into circulation. "And when this letter has been read among you, see that it be read in the church of the Laodiceans also; and that you yourselves read the letter from Laodicea." (Col. 4:16).
"I charge you by the Lord that this epistle be read to all the holy brethren." (1 Thess. 5:27). The holy Scriptures were written for all (1 Cor. 1:2; Eph. 1:1) and all will be judged by them in the last day (Rev. 20:12; John 12:48). Jesus said that His Word will abide forever
(Matt. 24:35; 1 Pet. 1:23-25).

2007-04-20 18:44:09 · answer #4 · answered by RR 4 · 0 2

Second Epistle Of Saint Paul To Timothy
Chapter 3

16 All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice, 17 That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.

"All scripture,"... Every part of divine scripture is certainly profitable for all these ends. But, if we would have the whole rule of Christian faith and practice, we must not be content with those Scriptures, which Timothy knew from his infancy, that is, with the Old Testament alone: nor yet with the New Testament, without taking along with it the traditions of the apostles, and the interpretation of the church, to which the apostles delivered both the book, and the true meaning of it.

First Epistle Of Saint Paul To Timothy
Chapter 3

15 But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.

"The pillar and ground of the truth"... Therefore the church of the living God can never uphold error, nor bring in corruptions, superstition, or idolatry.

Second Epistle Of Saint Peter
Chapter 1
20 Understanding this first, that no prophecy of scripture is made by private interpretation. 21 For prophecy came not by the will of man at any time: but the holy men of God spoke, inspired by the Holy Ghost.

"No prophecy of scripture is made by private interpretation"... This shows plainly that the scriptures are not to be expounded by any one's private judgment or private spirit, because every part of the holy scriptures were written by men inspired by the Holy Ghost, and declared as such by the Church; therefore they are not to be interpreted but by the Spirit of God, which he hath left, and promised to remain with his Church to guide her in all truth to the end of the world. Some may tell us, that many of our divines interpret the scriptures: they may do so, but they do it always with a submission to the judgment of the Church, and not otherwise.








Christ did not say, "Sit down and write Bibles and scatter them over the earth, and let every man read his Bible and judge for himself."

If Christ had said that, there would never have been a Christianity on the earth at all, but a Babylon and confusion instead, and never one Church, the union of one body.

Hence, Christ never said to His Apostles, "Go and write Bibles and distribute them, and let everyone judge for himself."

That injunction was reserved for the Sixteenth Century, and we have seen the result of it. Ever since the Sixteenth Century there have been springing up religion upon religion, and churches upon churches, all fighting and quarreling with one another, and all because of the private interpretation of the Bible.

Christ sent His Apostles with authority to teach all nations, and never gave them any command of writing the Bible. And the Apostles went forth and preached everywhere, and planted the Church of God throughout the earth, but never thought of writing.

The Church of God was established and went on spreading itself over the whole globe without the Bible for more than three hundred years. In all that time the people did not know what constituted the Bible.

2007-04-22 14:03:39 · answer #5 · answered by cashelmara 7 · 1 0

i got to be honest here, i reseached this and came back very confused , the LORD and I will have to work this out.

2007-04-20 18:48:21 · answer #6 · answered by nocateman 5 · 2 0

hi !! je suit la pour tous merci

2007-04-20 18:44:44 · answer #7 · answered by houari k 1 · 0 2

fedest.com, questions and answers