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I want to know what does these verses in O.T. says..

Judges 21:10-24 NLT
Numbers 31:7-18 NLT
Deuteronomy 20:10-14
Deuteronomy 22:28-29 NLT
Deuteronomy 22:23-24 NAB
2 Samuel 12:11-14 NAB
Deuteronomy 21:10-14 NAB

2007-04-18 18:37:17 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

7 answers

It appears t e that you have searched to find the version which states what you want it to state...so why ask?

2007-04-18 18:52:55 · answer #1 · answered by Belize Missionary 6 · 0 0

Luke 6:35 -“Love your enemies! Do good to them. Lend to them without expecting to be repaid. Then your reward from heaven will be very great, and you will truly be acting as children of the Most High, for he is kind to those who are unthankful and wicked.

Romans 13:9 - For this, " YOU SHALL NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, YOU SHALL NOT MURDER, YOU SHALL NOT STEAL, YOU SHALL NOT COVET," and if there is any other commandment, it is summed up in this saying, " YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF."


God has done away with the wicked in the past and now He is showing patience through Jesus Christ who has died for the whole world so that they may repent. God will not allow the wicked to live with Him but they will be condemend since they denied Him. Their future when the world is done is in destruction, weeping, gnashing teeth because they denied Him.

2007-04-19 01:54:16 · answer #2 · answered by Ms DeeAnn 5 · 0 0

The first passage is referring to, as the verse at the end of the chapter indicates, "everyone did what was right in his own eyes." This means people were doing what seemed fine to them. This has nothing to do with an order from God. If you read Judges, this is a recurring theme. The Israelites have moved away from God and do wickedly. This is what happens to a people who move toward Godlessness.

The second passage certainly begins with a command from God to go to war, but there isn't indication that God tells Moses what to say next. This passage has a symbolic meaning for the Christian (the NT doesn't really provide any excuse for Christians to go to war) to 1. separate yourselves from the wicked and 2. don't marry wicked people who will pull you away from God. I can't see a reason to not take the account literally, but I would comfort in the fact that God does not command something like this out of wickedness. In God's foresight, whatever He commands is the best thing to do. I would also take comfort in the fact that now that the theocracy of Israel is gone, judgment of the wicked belongs to God alone and we won't be required to enact vengeance ourselves.

On the third passage, read also verses 16-18 of that chapter for the key message. Basically, God has brought the Israelites into this land and has requested many things from them. Most of them are pretty simple and agreeable, but every so often there is a command like this which we find difficult to do. I would recommend pulling yourself out of the Western mindset and understanding that all morality comes from God and He always acts in perfect judgment.

The fourth and fifth passages are pretty simple. The fourth is basically saying that if two people have intercourse and neither are married or engaged to be married, they will be considered as good as married and will have to become married. The fifth refers to adultery. The price to be paid for adultery is to forfeit your life. This still applies, but we are now under the blood of Christ. If we refuse to accept Christ's offer for our sins, we will still be killed for our sins on the Day of Judgment. How is this different from God commanding the government He enacted to pass on this sentence for Him? What is to be understood is that Israel was to be a nation of priests who immersed themselves in God's Word and lived by it. They were to be a light to the world around them after they had settled. Thus, harsh penalties came with sinning against God.

The sixth passage is part prophecy/ part judgment of God. Ultimately, God did not MAKE this happen, but allowed it to transpire to deal with David in judgment.

Christ explained that the 7th passage (and passages like it), in relation to its reference of divorce, was given because our hearts are hard. However, God wills it that no one divorce his wife except for the cause of adultery. Apart from that, it was often that when wars went on at this time, the losing side would become bondservants to the winning side (God regulated this practice in a way that would have been considered very progressive for its time). Notice that in this passage, when the woman was taken as a wife, her clothes of bondage were cast off and if she was divorced, she would not go into bondage again. Thus, this practice would have been a blessing in many ways to the wives here. Also, there is no real indication of restraint toward the woman. Marriages were often arranged, affection came and grew later, and most people were pretty cool with that. Children were considered riches.


Does this help at all?

2007-04-19 02:13:43 · answer #3 · answered by icurabbi 2 · 1 0

why not look them up yourself...you could actually learn more by doing it yourself. and if you're not able to for a very good reason, then, i'm sorry.

2007-04-19 02:18:58 · answer #4 · answered by Elle M. 3 · 0 0

Then read them...thanks for the two points.

2007-04-19 01:41:44 · answer #5 · answered by Terry 7 · 0 2

www.biblegateway.com

2007-04-19 01:44:37 · answer #6 · answered by Gifted 7 · 1 0

www.bible.com

2007-04-19 01:40:17 · answer #7 · answered by Christine S 3 · 2 1

fedest.com, questions and answers