Even though the person is not with their spouse?
2007-04-18 17:24:36 · 27 answers · asked by Shannon83 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Not a question about me but thanks for the great answers.
2007-04-22 11:27:32 · update #1
Yes it is. And if they are trying to work things out then it is very wrong. If he has filed for divorce then I would maybe say that it is ok, but if they are just seperated I wouldn't.
Plus - do you really want to be his rebound. He is just getting out of a relationship and I really doubt that he is going to be ready or even want to get into another one so soon.
2007-04-18 17:29:32 · answer #1 · answered by Carrie T 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes, being in a relationship with a married person or a person who has ever been married and didn't receive a biblical divorcement is adultery. A biblical divorcement according to the book of Matthew in the Bible states that a spouse can be put away for committing adultery and the spouse who didn't commit adultery is free to remarry. But anyone marrying the adlulterer becomes an adulterer themselves and will be in sin. Hope that answers your question and try to stay away from those married people and divorcees. Always ask why they got a divorce and if it is anything other than their spouse cheating on them, leave them be.
2007-04-18 17:43:17 · answer #2 · answered by mechelle 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Adultery means, after the solemnization of the marriage had voluntary sexual intercourse with any person other than his or her spouse. A person who is married but separated if do sexual intercourse with any other person is liable for adultery, and any person doing sex with such a person is also liable for the same. A person who does sexual intercourse with a married lady although separated but not divorced, is liable for offence of Adultery punishable under section 497 of the Indian Penal Code. Similarly any man or woman separated from his wife or husband but not legally divorced doing sexual intercourse can be divorced by his or her spouse on the ground of adultery. But any person who does not have any legal spouse if does sexual intercourse with another person who also does not have legal spouse is not liable for adultery.
2007-04-18 17:47:34 · answer #3 · answered by vijay m Indian Lawyer 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the state and circumstances. My wife cheated and left me for a woman without filing any papers. In this state, it is considered domestic abandonment and she had no legal standing whatsoever on anything. She actually legally forfeited all marital assets. (It didn't really matter because she stole everything before she left and left me penniless and homeless.) I rebounded and met a woman about a year later and I still couldn't track her down to get her to sign the divorce papers. The second woman and I started dating and I finally tracked the first wife down and got divorced and married the same day. There was nothing she could do as she was legally at fault by the laws of this state.
2016-05-18 21:17:11 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is. Until the divorce is final, they are still married. It's no different than messing around with a married person on a business trip. They are away from their spouse but it's still adultery.
2007-04-18 17:28:41 · answer #5 · answered by J D 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes, technically and legally.
Then, according to some religious beliefs, it remains an adulterous relationship even AFTER the divorce and until the original partner either dies or takes up with someone else, thus breaking the vow of marriage via adultery.
Regardless, one should hold off on such intimacy until the paperwork is signed by the judge. Sometimes, the married partners decide to get back together.
I knew one woman who was so incompatible with her husband that she left and obtained a divorce. But then she continued to go back to him for the sex, and got pregnant, to boot! How would you like to wind up with such a person?
2007-04-18 17:39:19 · answer #6 · answered by seeitmiway32 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
For the married person it is (legally/technically). Today, it seems, we have to ask that question. In the past, it was quite clear cut. Has anything really changed? I think the answer lies in society's mores. Can't you wait? I am married, but separated, and will wait (yes, it's hard though because of the temptation all around us every day). Society has seemed to accept the fact that it will happen no matter what.
2007-04-18 17:40:43 · answer #7 · answered by Andy K 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes because they are STILL married until the divorce is finalized. If the married man wants to work it out with his wife in the future please don't tempt him with sex because he will end up doing something he will regret and his wife will be hurt as well. Think of the wife's feelings put yourself in her shoes for a second. Would you get very upset if your husband was not with you at the time and had another woman tempt him like that and he gave into her. How would you feel? Ask yourself that before you seek a sexual relationship with a married man.
2007-04-18 17:36:07 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
technically yes.
The fact that hes married makes it so in the eyes of the law. Just like if an 18 year old male has sex with a 17 year old its statuatory rape on the males part while if it is the female that is 18 and the male that is 17 it is the other way around. Ironic, isnt it?
And why doesnt he get a divorce?
2007-04-18 17:28:06 · answer #9 · answered by Adam 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
yes, it is. Unless his spouse dies or commits adultery herself, he cannot get a biblical divorcement and anyone having sex with him now or in the future even if he gets a legal divorce will be committing the SIN of adultery.
2007-04-19 16:28:46 · answer #10 · answered by goodfellas 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋