What happened to Matthew 17:21 in the NIV? Where did it go? Also, how come in Hebrews 4:8 in the NIV and the KJV it is "Joshua" in one and "Jesus"in the other?
2007-04-18 05:24:53 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
There are different readings in the manuscripts.
Most versions include this as a footnote.
Generally, the KJV relied more heavily on the total number of manuscripts in which a passage appeared regardless of how old it was; the more current translations rely more upon the weight of how ancient the manuscript, as well as its completeness.
As for Hebrews 4:8; the Greek word here is IESUS, which is transliterated as Jesus; however the context makes it plain that it is referring to Joshua, Moses' successor. Jesus is the Greek version of the Hebrew name Joshua, or probably more accurately, Yehoshua. It was a common name in His day and the name of 2 prominent characters in the Old Testament; namely the above mentioned successor of Moses and the one with the Book of the same name, and the high priest Joshua who lived during the time of the return from Babylonian captivity. (See Zechariah chapter 3 and 6:11-15)
2007-04-18 05:40:01 · answer #1 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The King James translators altered or added several verses to the KJV in order to support the false doctrines they were trying to support.
These include 1 John 5:7, Acts 8:37 and John 5:4 and notice how they changed Revelation 1:6 to support the trinity:
" and has made us to be a kingdom and priests to serve his God and Father—to him be glory and power for ever and ever! Amen." NIV
Now we read the same verse in the KJV:
"And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen." KJV
Quite a difference. The NIV is the correct translation of that verse.
Jesus is the latin form of the greek I-e-sous which corresponds to the Hebrew Ye-shu'a or yehohshu'a
The name I-e-sous appears in the Greek text of Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 and applies to Joshua, the leader of Israel following the death of Moses.
2007-04-18 06:05:22 · answer #2 · answered by Micah 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Men make mistakes....some even purposely....1john 5:7 is missing in many versions (particularly Catholic).... there are 2 whole sections of the old testament that are identical.....there are prophetic references in the Gospel that do not appear in the previous books...many phrases are "added in" (namely KJV)......there are whole books given to this subject.....the Joshua/Jesus thing was a simple Hebrew/Greek argument lost by one side or the other during the translation "tug of war"...Who cares? Faith and salvation are based upon a relationship that is real and relevant because of the Spirit of Christ himself available to every honest skeptic......The Bible is not the Word...Jesus is the Word and He is seated next to His Father daily defending His true disciples and constantly encouraging and empowering with His Spirit. Bible arguements are like fighting over the lyrics on an old rock and roll tune. "Shut up and play it!"
2007-04-18 05:42:57 · answer #3 · answered by glen50beach 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I can answer the 2nd question.The name Jesus in Hebrew is Y'shua,translated to Greek to Latin it is Joshua.Translated from Hebrew to Greek it is Jesus.It is the same name.In Hebrews 4:8 Paul is (and I think Paul wrote Hebrews) speaking of Joshua of the Old Testament.You sort of have the same thing in the KJV with the name Isaiah ,Elijah and Jeremiah.There they are Esaias,Elias,and Jeremy.It doesn't take away from the meaning nor is it a "Contradiction" just a translting problem.
The name Jesus in Greek is Ieosus.translated to English it is Jesus.
2007-04-18 05:33:19 · answer #4 · answered by AngelsFan 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Joshua and Jesus are interchangeable in the Hebrew Language, but you have to understand this before you go into this type of question. I see no further explanation as you would not understand if I did.
2007-04-18 05:29:45 · answer #5 · answered by Ex Head 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
joshua and jesus is the same name translated. as for your other question, you may have an accidental loss of a verse in just the Bible itself. the tranlation could have been changed too. the Bible is the most perfect book ever, yet computer printers make mistakes.
2007-04-18 05:28:47 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Search the net...lots of info on why.
Namely Wescott and Hort. I could list you other verses that are missing or altered but really, its all on the net.
I will list a link to some free audio you could listen to on the subject.
2007-04-18 05:34:06 · answer #7 · answered by SirLok 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Every day there is an up date to the Bible don't you know that
read this too
Deuteronomy 4:2 clearly declares that the Bible is corrupt!
http://www.answering-christianity.com/Deuteronomy4_2.htm
May God bless u
2007-04-18 05:40:15 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
certain publishers took them and other verses out because they didnt feel they were important... as far as Jesus and Joshua, same name difference in translation..
2007-04-18 05:31:57 · answer #9 · answered by Pastor Biker 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
because the bible is not the word of god but mostly the works of man.
2007-04-18 05:27:33 · answer #10 · answered by DBznut 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋