"Father why hast thou forsaken me"...OK then, did Jesus convert to antitheism just before his death?

Question

This question is about Jesus converting to antitheism not atheism, please read more carefully.

Answer 1

refer back to dwaynes answer

Answer 2

No, Jesus did not convert to antitheism. Jesus is a part of the Trinity. There is God the Father, God the Son - Jesus, and God the Holy Ghost. Jesus was fulfilling a prophesy of Psalms 22:1 by uttering those words which made manifest the agony and suffering that Jesus was under as He was identified with the judgment of God (the Father) upon man for sin. Jesus is revealing to us by these comments that "He" was the God-Man prophesied to come as the Saviour of Israel.

Answer 3

I don't think he was going against God. God turned his back on him for taking on the sins of the world, which was his main purpose on this Earth. You'll probably give me a thumbs-down or some lame retort because you're just looking for an atheist who will poke at the subject, trying to upset some extremist Christian that doesn't like the question. Why don't you walk up to a theologist that might have some better insight on the question? You people have nothing better to do. If you're so eager to seek knowledge, why use Y!A? I know having a smug smile makes you feel secure in your Napolean complex, but open up a book every once in a while.

Answer 4

OK, I believe when Christ cried out to the Father on the cross, saying " My God, My God, why have you forsaken me? " that was the exact point when the sins of the whole world were laid upon him, past, present and future.

Just imagine if you can, I know it's hard for us to, but imagine a holy God who never knew sin, ever, just perfect peace, joy and love, which is the fruit of righteousness. All of a sudden for the first time a holy God now feels the consequences sin brings to a person's heart. Darkness, despair, depression, loneliness, and all the other ugly feelings sin brings.

For the first time, Christ was separated by sin from the Father's love. That is why I believe he cried out in anguish.

Answer 5

No! When he said it was because at that point he was in anguish, because of the worlds sin that was upon him, so in his anguish he uttered that phrase! Because of the sin, he was separated from God his father.

God cannot live with sin. That's why Adam was ejected from the garden of Eden. The wages of sin is death, the only way to appease sin, was through a blood sacrifice. In the old testament they used animals such as lambs for this purpose. Jesus became that lamb, to permanently appease the sin of all mankind.

Answer 6

That really is an ignorant question. If you really want to know something ask a question. Making a comment in question form voilates the guidelines here and makes you look less than credible.

Answer 7

What makes you say that? It was in the form of a question. there is a difference between making a statement. And asking in the form of a question.

Answer 8

No, he was quoting the title of a distinctly Messianic Psalm, thereby identifying himself as the Messiah.

Answer 9

He seems to be part of the Trinity (don't even ask, I don't get it either)

That means Jesus was God. So, he was asking why he had forsaken himself. Maybe he had multiple personalities.

Maybe we should test if crucifixion is a valid method to heal a person with multiple personality disorder?

Answer 10

No dummy, it was because He was an Atheist that they crucified Him. The people forsook Jesus, because He forsook "their" "God" who is ruler of this world.
What about the millions of woman who are lost in history because they were not counted, did "their" "God" forsake them?
The (Day) of the Lord is a "day" of darkness, and not of light!

Answer 11

An atheist wouldn't talk to a being he/she didn't believe in like that - just the fact that He was addressing God, indicates He believed God was there somewhere to address.