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When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son! (John 19:26)


The Greek word for woman is Gunhv, and it’s the same word Jesus used for the prostitute:



The scribes and the Pharisees brought a woman who had been caught in adultery, and placing her in the midst they said to him, "Teacher, this woman has been caught in the act of adultery. Now in the Law Moses commanded us to stone such women. So what do you say?" This they said to test him, that they might have some charge to bring against him. Jesus bent down and wrote with his finger on the ground. And as they continued to ask him, he stood up and said to them, "Let him who is without sin among you be the first to throw a stone at her." And once more he bent down and wrote on the ground. But when they heard it, they went away one by one, beginning with the older ones, and Jesus was left alone with the woman standing before him. Jesus stood up and said to her, "Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?" (John 8:3-10) [1]

Instead, Jesus showed respect to strange woman, he called the bleeding woman ‘daughter’ and not ‘woman’.

She said to herself, "If I only touch his cloak, I will be healed." Jesus turned and saw her. "Take heart, daughter," he said, "your faith has healed you." And the woman was healed from that moment. (Matthew 9:21-22)

Strangely, Jesus showed respect to the unclean woman, yet dishonors his own mother.

The Bible says those who dishonor the parents are not successful.



"Honor your father and your mother, so that you may live long in the land the LORD your God is giving you. (Exodus 20:12)



'Each of you must respect his mother and father, and you must observe my Sabbaths. I am the LORD your God. (Leviticus 19:3)



"There are those who curse their fathers and do not bless their mothers; (Proverbs 30:11)

2007-04-18 01:58:28 · 31 answers · asked by naz 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I know his mother was a woman.

But the word "Woman" he used is refered to both his mother and prostitute.

2007-04-18 02:03:50 · update #1

To Jedimaster:

Jesus was not born in Greece but the New Testament was written in Greek!!!

Learn you history.

2007-04-18 02:05:44 · update #2

To Jedimaster:

The Dead Sea Scroll was the OT.

NT was written in Greek.

Again,

Check your history.

2007-04-18 02:18:36 · update #3

To Jedimaster:

Do you not understand English or what?

THE DEAD SEA SCROLLS WAS THE OLD TESTAMENT!!!!!!!!!!!

The New Testament was written in Greek!!!!!!!!!!!!!

The Old Testament doesn't mention Jesus even once!!!!!

The Old Testament was written about older prophets in Caanan.

The New Testament was written based on Jesus life!!!!!!!!!!!!

Again,
check your history!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

2007-04-18 07:49:12 · update #4

To Jedimaster:

I am quoting the New Testament!!!!

What does it got to do with the Dead Sea Scrolls?!!!

The Dead Sea Scrolls was written about the books of the Old Testament!!!!!!

2007-04-18 07:51:43 · update #5

31 answers

Guys, the question is... Why do Jesus addresses his mother "Woman" it's really disrespectful since there is also an aramaic word for "Mother" tell me, do you guys ever called your mom "Woman"? Tell me the whole story when you did. I'm sure you'll get a kick out of it.

2007-04-18 02:11:35 · answer #1 · answered by the_silent_philosopher 3 · 3 2

It may surprise the crap out of you, but Jesus didn't speak English. The New Testament was written after his death, mostly by people that weren't around him. He even said he didn't want a written account of His life, because that wasn't important, the idea behind the message was where the truth is. So how can you trust the word of disciples that went against His wishes. Then add to that the translations of centuries old text into different languages, finally settling on the King James version.. how many opportunities for mistranslation are there? When was the King James version written? A thousand years or more after Jesus' death? When scholars still believed the world to be flat? The bible provides an interesting look into how ancient man perceived the natural world around him. And later someone tacked on the story of Jesus and a portion of his life and death. It doesn't mean the two are related. So the gist of what I am saying is, don't pick out a single word and flip out. Read it, enjoy it and believe in what you will. If we are all made in God's image and likeness, then no matter what we believe, we are correct.

2007-04-18 02:18:47 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

First, the Greek word is "gune" (pronounced "goo-nay"). It means "woman or wife." When you look at the word in Greek, it appears there's a "V" in the word, but this is not the same as our English "V."

Secondly, the woman (wife) caught in the act of adultery was not a prostitute. There is no Scriptural basis to call her this, although some still do.

To answer your question, you must remember that Jesus drew no distinction between people to whom He was related and people who followed Him. (See, for example, Matthew 12:46-50.) To Jesus, Mary was a woman and wife as much as she was His mother. Similarly, the adulteress was just as much of a woman as His mother was.

There was no disrespect implied at all. If you truly knew Jesus, you'd know that He was never disrespectful to anyone. He rebuked harshly, but never said anything that He had no right to say.

EDIT: To "Jedimaster," the oldest manuscripts of the NT we have are written in Koine Greek. The Dead Sea Scrolls were written before the time of Jesus and comprise the Old Testament, not the New Testament.

2007-04-18 02:11:30 · answer #3 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 3 2

A question of a Jehovah Witness-

At the time when He saw His mother and said Woman here is your son, Jesus was already with the Spirit of God and considering that He is the Son of God, he called His mother woman instead of mother. The Son of God has no mother. Mary was his Mother when he become man but when he was with the Spirit of God, he is no longer a son of man. God is superior from a human being that is why he could not call Mary as his mother.But He was never disrespectful to his mother while in the person of man.

And then he told to his disciple, This is your mother and from that time on, the disciple brought Mary to his residence as his Mother.
jtm

2007-04-18 02:18:02 · answer #4 · answered by Jesus M 7 · 0 1

You doing some deep fishing here. Jesus was not dishonoring his mother. It was a term used from ancient times to today, haveing vast meanings. God granted the mother of Jesus the valuable job of raising His son, do you think that same God would dishoner her; no. besides Jesus spoke Aramaic not Greek.

2007-04-18 02:06:33 · answer #5 · answered by s. grant 4 · 1 1

Jesus wasn't speaking Greek. He was speaking Aramaic. There may not be an accurate aramaic to greek translation. Besides, you are forgetting that this is the same Jesus who acquiesced to his mother when she more or less commanded him to do something about the wine at the wedding at Cana. He tried to tell her it was not the time but she just said, I know you'll take care of it and walked away. And Jesus did. Behold the power of the Jewish mother.

2007-04-18 02:03:55 · answer #6 · answered by Sharon M 6 · 4 1

Where did you hear that women meant prostitute? Jesus wasn't being disrespectful, calling someone woman in those days means something different than it does now. He meant it the same way we do when we say "dear women" or "mom" or something like that. That prostitute that you are talking about is Mary Magdolene and Jesus was the only one who would treat her with care. Everyone else wanted to condemn her, but then Jesus made the point that all of us are sinners and don't have the right to judge her unless we judge ourselves first. Jesus didn't call his mother a prostitute.

2007-04-18 02:08:46 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

There's nothing wrong with being a woman, calling a woman a woman is not being disrespectful. When talking about his mother Jesus could have meant that she represented womankind.
It's not less respectful to say 'woman, behold thy son' than to say 'daughter'.
Jesus said he honours his father and mother, he also means his divine eternal father and divine eternal mother (goddess-worship). He is true to his word.

2007-04-18 02:36:10 · answer #8 · answered by Holistic Mystic 5 · 1 1

humm...

never knew that Jesus was born in Greece...

wow, this is getting more and more confusing...

EDIT

last time I checked the dead sea scrolls you people keep yapping about, authenticating the bible and all, was written in friggin HEBREW not Greek...

armchair...historians now....


According to carbon dating, textual analysis, and handwriting analysis the documents were written at various times between the middle of the 2nd century BC and the 1st century AD. At least one document has a carbon date range of 21 BC–61 AD. The Nash Papyrus from Egypt, containing a copy of the Ten Commandments, is the only other Hebrew document of comparable antiquity. Similar written materials have been recovered from nearby sites, including the fortress of Masada. While some of the scrolls were written on papyrus, a good portion were written on a brownish animal hide that appears to be gevil. The scrolls were written with feathers from a bird and the ink used was made from carbon black and white pigments. One scroll, appropriately named the Copper Scroll, consisted of thin copper sheets that were incised with text and then joined together.
About 80% to 85% of the Dead Sea Scrolls are written in one of three dialects of Hebrew,[4] Biblical Hebrew (also known as Classical Hebrew), "Dead Sea Scroll Hebrew" (on which see Hoffman 2004 or Qimron 1986), or proto-Tannaitic Hebrew, as in the Copper Scroll and the MMT text. Biblical Hebrew dominates in the Biblical scrolls, and DSS Hebrew in scrolls which some scholars believe were composed at Qumran. Also some scrolls are written in Aramaic and a few in Koine Greek.


SOME, NOT ALL, WERE WRITTEN IN KOINE GREEK MOST WRITTEN IN HEBREW...

i cant make up my mid if it is funnier that you have completely gone off topic with your details or that posting useless retoric makes people think they are right. See cristans, see how anoying this crap is...

2007-04-18 02:02:24 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

He didn't disrespect Mary ever. When Jesus spoke to her at this point, He addressed her in this way because He wasn't speaking to her as her son but as her Father, as God, as Christ her Saviour. She knew who He was and knew that she was raising not just any child but God's Son, a divine Son. And remember she was the one that made Him start His ministry at the wedding at Cana. She was the one who told Him to turn the water into wine and He was questioning her about it, saying that it wasn't His time/hour. But she continued and told the servants to bring the water to Him, to do as He says. So Mary was a strong woman, a mother and still humble and well aware of who Jesus really was. She felt no disrespect. She knew what was happening at the moment.

2007-04-18 02:08:37 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

I think at this point (while Jesus was on the cross), he was coming into his full self, above being a meer human. Mary knew who Jesus was and what he was sent to do. He called her woman, and what's wrong with that? Mary was a woman, so was the prostitute. He still respected his mother, but now you are seeing the transformation from her son to the savior of the world. He still respected her.

2007-04-18 02:05:34 · answer #11 · answered by qtpie831 4 · 3 1

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