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Jesus and his desciples were Israelites thus speak and using their language for sure. They were all in the Land of Israel and Aremaic is the local language,, How then that the original manuscript of the so-called New Testament wrote in Greek?

2007-04-12 23:28:43 · 8 answers · asked by desiderata80d 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

8 answers

Good question there Asker!!

I think it is because the Greek language was the most dominant of the time and also the most spoken and thus could reach most audience.

2007-04-12 23:35:13 · answer #1 · answered by RealArsenalFan 4 · 0 0

The New Testament, however, was written in Greek. This seems strange, since you might think it would be either Hebrew or Aramaic. However, Greek was the language of scholarship during the years of the composition of the New Testament from 50 to 100 AD. The fact is that many Jews could not even read Hebrew anymore, and this disturbed the Jewish leaders a lot! So, around 300 BC a translation of the Old Testament from Hebrew into Greek was undertaken, and it was completed around 200 BC. Gradually this Greek translation of the Old Testament, called the Septuagint, was widely accepted and was even used in many synagogues. It also became a wonderful missionary tool for the early Christians, for now the Greeks could read God's Word in their own tongue.

So the New Testament authors wrote in Greek. They did not, however, use really high-class or classical Greek, but a very common and everyday type of Greek. For many years some scholars ridiculed the Greek of the New Testament because many of its words were strange to those who read the writings of the great Greek classical authors such as Plato and Aristotle. But later many records were uncovered of ordinary people, and amazingly there were the same common terms used in everyday speech! The ridicule dried up accordingly.

2007-04-13 06:33:08 · answer #2 · answered by Dispachcops 3 · 2 0

According to the bible, New Testament, Jesus preached to the people all around Egypt and many others places but of course He did not preach the gospel because the gospel is a book which was made and bind together to be called as Bible. It is s the people to be preach of the teachings of God.

As it is written, the bible has been translated from Greek,Hebrew and Aramaic languages to different languages in order to be understood by all .
jtm

2007-04-13 06:40:29 · answer #3 · answered by Jesus M 7 · 0 0

Alexander the great conquered lands as far as north Africa, centuries before Christ.
Greek, therefore, was a common language in Palestine as much as in Alexandra in Egypt. The Greek septuagint, is the Greek translation of the Old Testament. It was written 200BC

Aramaic was a dialect obtained mixing Chaldean with Hebrew.

2007-04-13 06:36:29 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Greek was the international language. Most of Paul's writings were to the churches in the Greek world. Hebrew was no longer spoken.

2007-04-13 06:41:02 · answer #5 · answered by Preacher 6 · 0 0

The original manuscript you talk about was not written for many years after Jesus supposedly lived. Since the stories were re-created from tales presumably they were handed down by oral tradition is not surprising that it was not written in ancient Hebrew which is aramaic. Given the accuracy it could very well have been written in French, Spanish or English and been no more inspirational.

2007-04-13 06:33:44 · answer #6 · answered by Boston Bluefish 6 · 0 2

We do not have any of the original manuscripts only copies of copies, etc. We cannot know what language the original manuscripts were written in.

2007-04-13 06:35:48 · answer #7 · answered by single eye 5 · 0 1

NO THEY WERE ISRAELITES AFTER THAT HEBREWS THEN JEW AND NOW I HEARKEN ONTO ISRAEL MY CALL I AM HE THE FIRST AND THE LAST ,THE BEGINNING AND THE END, I AM ALPHA AND OMEGA,THE FIRST LETTER OF THE ALPHABET AND THE LAST LETTER OMEGA///// THE MESSENGER OF GOD IS HERE

2007-04-13 06:43:52 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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