does it not clearly say that Pilate wrote in Hebrew and Greek and latin? why did he leave out aramaic if aramaic was More commonly used, or not?
2007-04-12 15:47:01 · 8 answers · asked by Priestcalling 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Pilate did not write in Hebrew and Greek,he was a Roman governor, all of his communications were in the official language of the Empire which was Latin.
Aramaic, is an ancient version of Hebrew, and the rabbinic texts are recorded in Aramaic but this was not pilate's writing
2007-04-20 08:28:49 · answer #1 · answered by Boston Bluefish 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Aramaic was the popular spoken language of the region. Jesus spoke Aramaic, but he certainly could at least read and write in Hebrew, Greek, and Latin. The Jews wrote in Hebrew script. Even if they spoke Aramaic, which is a sister-language to Hebrew, they would have written and read things in Hebrew script.
2007-04-12 15:52:53 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus might have spoken Hebrew to people who spoke that language, however Greek was once probably the most most often used language of the day. Some Jews traveled widely and he can have spoken to them in Greek. Pilate wrote the ones phrases within the three unique languages in order that ALL in attendance in Jerusalem on the time might be ready to have an understanding of why Jesus was once hung upon the stake. As we all know, it's simpler for any one to have an understanding of language principles of their local tongue, to learn it of their local tongue might have pushed the factor residence much more.
2016-09-05 11:50:40 · answer #3 · answered by elmblad 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe Jesus spoke:
+ Aramaic - the common language of the people
+ Hebrew - the formal and religious language of Judaism
+ Greek - the common language of the Romans, the rulers of his country, and Egypt where he spent part of his childhood
If he wanted, of course, Jesus could have miraculously spoken any language.
With love in Christ.
2007-04-13 08:37:01 · answer #4 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Aramaic is a dialect of Hebrew. Just as when you go to England, depending on where you go you hear different dialects, you would have heard the different dialects of Hebrew during that time. Jesus would have spoken in Hebrew because He was a rcognized Rabbi.
2007-04-20 12:07:28 · answer #5 · answered by Scott 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
what does it matter so long as he lead a good example for people to follow
2007-04-20 04:03:13 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the two first answers ar the best go with them they know what their talking about
2007-04-20 03:49:03 · answer #7 · answered by darth_cheezy 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
he spoke Arabic
2007-04-20 11:29:07 · answer #8 · answered by wtever . 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋