math illusion 2=1
Given a=b
a2=ab
a2-b2=ab-b2
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)
(a+b)=b
a+a=a
2a=a
2=1!!!
this was on optillusions.com
2007-04-12 07:49:40 · 5 answers · asked by ♥Gin♥and*Jen* 3 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Jokes & Riddles
is it true?
2007-04-12 07:50:16 · update #1
Yawn
2007-04-12 07:52:23 · answer #1 · answered by exiletheking 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The whole thing is wrong, starting at step 2. Just because a equals b does not mean 2 times a is the same as a times b. For example, say a and b are both 5. 2 times five (10) sure as hell doesn't equal 5 times 5 (25)
2007-04-12 08:13:59 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope it is false.
This messes up in step#4 where you divide both sides by (a-b). If a=b then (a-b) = 0 and you would have been dividing by zero in that step. Dividing by zero is not allowed.
Once you have allowed that step to happen then the whole thing will start to act weird.
2007-04-12 07:54:17 · answer #3 · answered by A.Mercer 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're missing a 'b' in the (a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b). That's why it appears that 2=1
2007-04-12 07:54:31 · answer #4 · answered by jamsie 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
as above
2007-04-12 07:53:06 · answer #5 · answered by The Boss 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋