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DEUTERONOMY 22:5
5 ¶ The woman shall not wear that which pertaineth unto a man, neither shall a man put on a woman's garment: for all that do so [are] abomination unto the LORD thy God.

I would really like; if someone was a Jewish expert to answer this question. Since it seems to me that the people of the time wore the same thing (except maybe a different wrap.)

If you would... tell me why you think you are qualified to answer the question. Of course logiclly the one that has the best answer will speak for itself.

Thanks to all that will attempt. It's a tough one that requires knowledge , history and a understanding of the Scriptures.

By the way.....I don't know the answer and I only have what I've been taught.

I'm not Jewish and I do not know anyone that is a Jewish scholar of the Scripture to ask.

Thanks again to all

2007-04-12 05:09:40 · 3 answers · asked by garykofoid 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I know that alot of you are saying it's crossdressing and that society dictates the difference. I believe that doesn't make sense. I don't think one sould get to move somewhere or say that since they believe in the way some other country dresses makes it right for you to dress the way you want. What's good for one should be good to another. Sooooo this must mean ....maybe athority or something else. That's why I asked for a Jewish scholar . One that knows history and Bible.
thanks

2007-04-14 13:33:58 · update #1

3 answers

It basically says one should not cross-dress, but depending on how far you want to take it, you can say it means that each gender should not wear things customarily in the culture reserved for the other gender. Example: Jewish men should not wear make-up, or grow long nails, or wear skirts/dresses in the parts of the world where this is commonly reserved for women. 100 years ago, this would have meant Jewish women here should not wear pants, but today, since it is a cultural norm here, it is ok (now pants that are skin tight are an issue of modesty, and a different commandment entirely). When I was in Yeshiva, this is how it was explained to me. The culture you live in dictates how this law works, up to a certain point, of course.. In biblical times, the differences might be things under the clothes, but even still, there had to be differences, because otherwise, why write this at all, unless it was being written to cover future times, perhaps..

2007-04-12 05:25:51 · answer #1 · answered by XX 6 · 0 0

Its a prohibition against "cross dressing" which, in Jewish law, also covers other issues, e.g. certain types of adornments and grooming.

For the record, I do not think people of the time wore the exact same clothing regardless of gender. Although robes were in vogue for both men and women at the time there were women's robes vs. men's robes.

2007-04-12 12:56:08 · answer #2 · answered by BMCR 7 · 1 0

If you take it at face value, appears to be speaking of cross dressing and anything associated with it, i.e. dragging.

2007-04-12 05:21:58 · answer #3 · answered by chocobocharmer 3 · 0 0

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