DEUTERONOMY 22:5
5 ¶ The woman shall not wear that which pertaineth unto a man, neither shall a man put on a woman's garment: for all that do so [are] abomination unto the LORD thy God.
I would really like; if someone was a Jewish expert to answer this question. Since it seems to me that the people of the time wore the same thing (except maybe a different wrap.)
If you would... tell me why you think you are qualified to answer the question. Of course logiclly the one that has the best answer will speak for itself.
Thanks to all that will attempt. It's a tough one that requires knowledge , history and a understanding of the Scriptures.
By the way.....I don't know the answer and I only have what I've been taught.
I'm not Jewish and I do not know anyone that is a Jewish scholar of the Scripture to ask.
Thanks again to all
2007-04-12
05:09:40
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3 answers
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asked by
garykofoid
2
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
I know that alot of you are saying it's crossdressing and that society dictates the difference. I believe that doesn't make sense. I don't think one sould get to move somewhere or say that since they believe in the way some other country dresses makes it right for you to dress the way you want. What's good for one should be good to another. Sooooo this must mean ....maybe athority or something else. That's why I asked for a Jewish scholar . One that knows history and Bible.
thanks
2007-04-14
13:33:58 ·
update #1