If a girl has the type of HPV that causes genital warts and the warts show up, does that mean the guy who gave it to her also has visible warts? or could he give them to her without having warts down there?
2007-04-01 15:54:12 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ STDs
It can take several months and even years for warts to show up on some people.
I have had HPV for 6 years. I got genital warts from them a little over a year ago. It took me about 5 years to develop them!
But, just because you have a strain that can cause them, doesn't necessarily mean you will get them. It just means you CAN get them. So it's very possible to carry the type that causes warts, but never physically get them.
***Also, men are NOT just carriers like the girl above me said! A LOT of people don't quite understand HPV as much as they think they do. HPV doesn't cause as much health problems for men (as it does women) but HPV DIRECTLY affects men too. Men can develop genital warts from it (my fiance did!) and they can develop cancer from it. Penile cancer and anal cancer can be caused by HPV and can affect men. Penile cancer and anal cancer are VERY rare however.
2007-04-01 22:03:58 · answer #1 · answered by Alli 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A person could have HPV without visible warts, and yes they can transmit the virus to a person who can then have visible warts. In a German study 31% of healthy males (who thought they had no disease) between 16 and 79 years old who were examined by taking smears from their glans penis showed evidence of infection with HPV. Based on such studies, researchers have estimated that 1% of Americans have VISIBLE genital warts, 2% have warts that can only be seen under magnification, and 7% have infections that are INVISIBLE.
2007-04-01 17:17:09 · answer #2 · answered by Leftofcenter 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
HPV can be quite the frustrating virus. One can be exposed to it without showing visible symptoms right away--sometimes never, yet still be passing it on to other sex partners. So, to answer your question, "yes" someone can pass it on to someone else even if there are no warts present. Condoms are definitely recommended if there's uncertainty anywhere with anyone. Hope this helps.
2007-04-01 16:02:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Men are only carriers of HPV and women are the only ones that show symptoms. There would be no way of knowing if a guy has it, unless it was herpes and they had an outbreak at the time. Genital warts and genital herpes are different things.
2007-04-01 17:33:11 · answer #4 · answered by Lacey 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It is very possible to give warts to someone without having any visible signs on yourself. In fact, thats how I got them from my girlfriend. She didn't have any visible signs, but I did. Weird, but it happens all the time. If you want to know more, just let me know.
2007-04-02 16:48:54 · answer #5 · answered by Greg 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A guy could have the hpv virus and not have any symptoms for a long time or never at all when you have sex you can pass the virus on to someone whether your using condoms or not its skin to skin contact i know from experience.
2007-04-03 21:18:44 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
He doesn't necessarily need to "show" that he has it to infect someone. He can be a carrier and not even know it as well.
2007-04-01 15:59:42 · answer #7 · answered by int med rn 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋