No. It's not entirely his fault. She is just as much to blame as he is.
She chose to have sex with him (whether she knew he had the virus or not). She could have just as easily not slept with him.
I contracted genital herpes over 6 years ago from a guy I had sex with ONE time. He didn't tell him he had the virus and I had no way of knowing. I don't make him pay for any of my medication or medical expenses related to my herpes. I'm half to blame for contracting it. I could have just chose to not slept with him!
He shouldn't have to pay for anything for her. She is just as much at fault.
2007-04-01 22:30:01
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answer #1
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answered by Alli 7
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Depends on how strongly that she can prove that she had NO outbreaks beforehand.
I know a lawyer who unsuccessfully defended a man who was sued by his wife for giving her herpes. She got alot of money, from what I understand.
Herpes is a VIRUS which stays with you the REST OF YOUR LIFE.
Courts treat it very seriously and there is legal precedent that those who know they have it and do not tell their partner are liable.
I am sorry- I was researching this a few years ago, and I've lost my book marks on this :(
Try doing a search for "herpes, lawsuit" or similar terms.
It would also help if she can find the lover she had immediately before the H infected dude. Also, she needs to find evidence that he knew he had it before he met her.
Good luck- and keep talking to different lawyers until you find someone who has a clue about this unique sort of case!
2007-04-02 00:11:03
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answer #2
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answered by Jessie 5
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Most people that have this virus will tell their partner before hand that then have it. She put herself at risk and that means she made the decision. Means she should have to pay herself because she made her own choice. This is not there problem unless he didn't tell her and I really doubt that. This virus is no joke and he know that this is a life term thing. There is nothing that he can do but to say no. But if she says it is okay then he is not doing anything wrong. Women are just so pety sometimes.
2007-04-01 07:02:34
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answer #3
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answered by fxysxysrkly 4
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Has he gotten checked for the herpes virus as well?? He needs to do that first before spitting out money to a girl who could've gotten it after being with him. Tell him to go get tested himself to see if he is even carrying the disease. If he does have it then I don't think he is in-titled to help her pay for anything since he will have to pay for his own too.
2007-04-01 08:10:16
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answer #4
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answered by CeeCee19 4
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No reason to.
1. It was her choice as well as his to have unprotected sex.
2. There is no way to legally prove that it was definitely your friend who gave her the disease.
Your friend needs to be tested & treated, but there is no reason, other than the kindness of his heart (if he can afford it) to have to pay bills for someone else.
2007-04-01 05:55:24
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answer #5
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answered by belmyst 5
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i wouldn't have paid the first time but then i'm not silly enough not to wear a condom there both a bit foolish not to protect each other
but since it has happened they should probably both go halfs
2007-04-01 05:53:03
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answer #6
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answered by creme8888 3
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No. Should he pay if he gave her a cold?
2007-04-01 06:01:16
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answer #7
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answered by ineedhennessy 3
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nope... he should not have to pay because she should have been more careful of who she slept with. besides she agreed to have sex right?
2007-04-01 05:54:03
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answer #8
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answered by kelly 4
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She has to prove it wasn't visa-verse
2007-04-01 05:52:10
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answer #9
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answered by Bertie D 4
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No -- there are free clinics to go to.
2007-04-01 05:52:34
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answer #10
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answered by Firedogfire 3
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