2007-03-26 11:25:50 · 3 answers · asked by College Student 2 in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ Respiratory Diseases
If the asthmatic person has his/her asthma under control, It could be the same percentage. FEV1 and other FEV readings are predicted on your height, age, race and sex. The results are reported in a percent of what would be normal for someone just like you.
The asthmatic person will have a reduced FEV1 percentage if the asthma is not controlled. In other words, they are having airway inflammation and airway constriction when tested.
2007-03-26 15:15:22 · answer #1 · answered by Matt A 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends entirely on whether or not the asthmatic is symptomatic at the point of measurement. If the asthmatic is symptomatic, the FEV would certainly be decreased by an amount dependent on how severe the symptoms are.
As an asthmatic myself, I have no different FEV readings than my husband (non-asthmatic) when I'm asymptomatic. However, when I get sick, my FEV can be reduced to as little as 40% of my normal reading.
2007-03-27 08:42:32 · answer #2 · answered by Sheila T 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) values are usually expressed with a number after them. ( FEV1, FEV3, etc.) They express a percentage of the FVC (Forced Vital Capacity) and are obtained by doing breathing tests called pulmonary function tests. These test results, among others can determine if someone has a respiratory disease, what type of disease they have, the severity of the disease, and the progression of it.
These values would be decreased with many respiratory diseases, including asthma.
2007-03-26 14:09:52 · answer #3 · answered by mike.marlow 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋