Rationally, if we assume that a woman has a right to her body, and may decide the fate of her fetus; what would be a moral objection to her chosing to abort it and giving her fetus to me to use in foods?
If a woman has a right to her own reproductive choices, what would be wrong with her employing herself by repeatedly getting pregnant to provide me with this food?
We are assuming she has a right to her body. We are also not using any divinely revealed moral systems, only rational ones. YOur disgust has no bearing as you cannot impose your asthetics on another rightfully.
Assuming we assure a disease free fetus, and the food will only be served well marked to those requesting it, is there any possible objection to this process?
2007-03-25
23:13:59
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9 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality