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If Jesus paid for our sins what does this verse mean
"The father shall not be put to death for the children, neither the children put to death for the fathers; every man shall be put to death for his own sins. DEUTERONOMY 24:16"

2007-03-25 13:55:57 · 21 answers · asked by naseertx 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

21 answers

It means everyone is responsible for their own sins.

2007-03-25 14:00:19 · answer #1 · answered by joe a 2 · 1 0

Jesus is the fufillment of the prophesies of the Messiah. Read Isaiah 53. That verse means that if someone steals something from a store, for example, that the children of that man are not accountable for that sin. Under the old law, that man would have been put to death by the law but now that Jesus paid the penalty, that person does not have to die for stealing. He does not have to sacrifice animals to get rid of the sin either.

2007-03-25 21:06:17 · answer #2 · answered by Ms DeeAnn 5 · 1 0

Deuteronomy was when the Laws came down and did away with the old Like Father Like Son concept when the parents suffered for the childrens deeds and vice versa.....

When Jesus came he brought the concept of Compassion to the table which before that there was none. It was an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth which to the wise of old seem to be the natural way: to retaliate in kind.

It was the sins of the people who killed Jesus..that's why Jesus died for "our sins"..It's a question of semantics. Our sins meaning mankind's sins. The sins of the killers. For example the wives of King Henry the 8th of England died because of the sins of Henry the 8th, King Henry being the representative of "us"; they died for our sins not because the wives were sinners but because Henry the 8th was a sinner although in his own eyes he was righteous..or didn't care.

So in the days before the Law of Deut 24:16 children were killed because of the sins of the parents(the Father) and the Father was killed for the sins of the children because the community believed evil ran in the family and all were contaminated and all therefore must die.. The law you recite recognized that everyone must take responsibility for their own actions.

2007-03-25 21:42:39 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus has nothing to do with that verse. Prior to the law a mans family was held accountable for the father's sin. A whole tribe could be wiped out for the sin of one. This does not say that the children will suffer eternal damnation, but that on earth they would die with their sinful parent. Sin was dealt with more seriously in the past.

2007-03-25 21:08:22 · answer #4 · answered by DATA DROID 4 · 0 0

Under the law of sin & death, only those who sinned paid the penalty for their sin, not others in the family.

Jesus was without sin, so the wages of sin is death. Jesus died baring our sins. But because He Is without sin, He doesn't get the death penalty. He raise from the dead, victorious over death.

Also, you will realize that under the law of sin & death, the person did sin and didn't raise from the dead.

Jesus Is the Seed of the Woman (Genesis 3) who defeated the serpents seed. By one mans sin, we all have sin nature, sin & die. By one mans righteousness, we all can have eternal life.

2007-03-25 21:13:43 · answer #5 · answered by LottaLou 7 · 0 0

It has to do with accountability. Each one is accountable for their own actions. In the old testament if you did a sin that was worthy of the death penality, then you had to suffer the consequences, not your Father or your children. You and you alone had to answer for it.

2007-03-25 21:04:01 · answer #6 · answered by bro_ken128 3 · 1 0

Some people believe that Jesus was asked by God to die on the cross because of the sins of humankind. This is a theology which won out hundreds of years ago.
Another theology, by Don Scotus, which did not become the norm of belief is that Jesus, by becoming a person, redeemed us. Jesus' whole life was one of redemption. Jesus did not have to die on the cross. God did not command Jesus' death. Jesus by forgiving those who put Him to death, show us that nothing can separate us from the love of God.

2007-03-25 21:16:11 · answer #7 · answered by Mary W 5 · 0 0

It means that the biblical version of god is a vicious tyrant with little respect for human rights. Why would an omnipotent god sacrifice a kid when he could do or know anything himself?

Or maybe I am wrong and the line is metaphor for how people are responsible for their own lives and cause their own deaths without god murdering them. Otherwise it would sound kind of "mean," wouldn't it?

Of course, this means that conservative evangelicals will attempt to rationalize it by reading it with rose-colored glasses, just as they do for threats of stoning in Leviticus.

2007-03-26 17:01:12 · answer #8 · answered by Dalarus 7 · 0 0

It means that the sins of the father are not transferred to the children. If the father kills someone that doesn't make the child guilty. That's what it means to me.

2007-03-25 21:00:30 · answer #9 · answered by Adam W 2 · 2 0

Deuteronomy was written by Moses,and contains a lot of the
various laws and ordinances that God gave Moses for the
people of Israel,and it was before Jesus came and die for our
sins.God was telling them that each person is responsible for
their own sins. (Ezekiel 18:19-22)

2007-03-25 22:09:33 · answer #10 · answered by Grandma"s AngelMaxine W 1 · 0 0

This doesn't discount Jesus Christ dying for our sins. Are we not still held accountable? Yes, we are. My mother can't bare my sins, nor can I bare hers... we will all be judged according to what we have done. I don't see where the confussion lies.

Furthermore, Jesus did not come until the New Testament. If you read further you will read the prophecies that foretold his coming and teh purpose for it.

2007-03-25 21:02:51 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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